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Old 12-12-2010, 04:01 PM   #141
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WHO CAN SEE PHANTOMS ON EARTH? If JESUS DID EXIST HE COULD NOT HAVE BEEN A PHANTOM.
phan·tom also fan·tom (fntm)
n.
1.
a. Something apparently seen, heard, or sensed, but having no physical reality; a ghost or an apparition.
You CAN REALLY SEE them?
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Originally Posted by jgreen44 View Post
So the invisible Jesus only "appeared" to be crucified?
You tell me what happened. I WANT you to be RIGHT. You seem to know how the INVISIBLE can be executed.

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And further MARCION LIVED about 100 years AFTER his Phantom Son of ANOTHER GOD was supposed to be on earth.
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And yet Marcion developed a theology of Christ. What was wrong with that guy?
It was NOT Marcion alone who developed theology around the INVSIBLE and PHANTOMS. You must read the HISTORIES of Antiquity. You must try and understand that people of Antiquity believed in the INVISIBLE and Phantoms.

1. NT Jesus of Nazareth was the Child of a Ghost and a VIRGIN.

2. MARCION'S Son of another God was a PHANTOM.

3. BASILIDES PROCLAIMED a Non-existing God created Existence.

4. JUSTINUS TAUGHT that ELOHIM, the FATHER, was INVISIBLE and UNKNOWN.

5. The DOCETAE TAUGHT the PRIMAL Deity is like the seed of a FIG tree.

6. TATIAN PREACHED that the world was created by INVISIBLE Aeons.

7. APPELLES CLAIMED that there were FOUR Gods.

8. THEODOTUS MAINTAINED that Jesus did NOT have assumed flesh in the womb of the Virgin.

9. NOETUS ASSERTED that the Father is also the Son, visible and invisible, begotten and unbegotten, mortal and immortal. And that the Father was crucified.

10. The ELCHASAITES MAINTAINED that at one time Christ was begotten of God, and at another time became the Spirit, and at another time was born of a virgin, and at another time not so.

What was WRONG with those Guys of Antiquity? Nothing was wrong.

They are just MYTH-MAKERS like the authors of the NT and MARCION. In Antiquity people BELIEVED in MYTHS. Jesus MUST have been a GOOD MYTH to BELIEVE.

See and READ "Refutation Against All Heresies" by Hippolytus

Tell me if the ENEMIES of ALL the MYTH-Makers did SEE ALL the MYTHS.
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Old 12-12-2010, 10:40 PM   #142
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So how would you EXPECT the Roman soldiers, Pilate, the Sanhedrin and Jews to see Jesus through the transubstantiation?

You see ordinary bread and wine?

Well, how come no-one saw the ordinary Jesus?
Who's to say no one saw the ordinary Jesus? If the ordinary Jesus existed, quite apart from the question of his theological nature, he presumably was seen by Roman soldiers and others. The absence of a written record of these events is not proof that they didn't happen.

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Jesus would have appeared to be a man to other men. It is only in the resurrection that you find proof that he was not a man.
You mean Jesus was a REAL GHOST at around the 15th year of the reign of Tiberius.
What's your point? Tertullian and Marcion dispute the issue of Jesus' "real" nature, but they do not dispute the issue of his appearance. Consequently, the failure of observers to report any ghosts or phantoms does not rebut the claims of these men anymore than it rebuts the claims of those who insisted that Jesus was fully human.
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Old 12-13-2010, 07:15 AM   #143
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What's your point? Tertullian and Marcion dispute the issue of Jesus' "real" nature, but they do not dispute the issue of his appearance.
According to aa5874, Tertullian wrote that the Marcionites believed Jesus was invisible to his enemies. However, aa5874 has yet to cite the passage from Tertullian which states this.
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Old 12-13-2010, 10:20 AM   #144
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aa5874 writes:

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So how would you EXPECT the Roman soldiers, Pilate, the Sanhedrin and Jews to see Jesus through the transubstantiation?

You see ordinary bread and wine?

Well, how come no-one saw the ordinary Jesus?
Who's to say no one saw the ordinary Jesus? If the ordinary Jesus existed, quite apart from the question of his theological nature, he presumably was seen by Roman soldiers and others. The absence of a written record of these events is not proof that they didn't happen...
You are NOT making much Sense.

Are you implying that the ABSENCE of written records is the PROOF that it DID happen?

You seem not to even understand how theories are developed.

Once there is NO written evidence that Jesus was SEEN and KNOWN as a mere human being, for about 30 years in Galilee based on gLuke, then the theory that Jesus was a MYTH character can be MAINTAINED without CONTRADICTION.

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..Jesus would have appeared to be a man to other men. It is only in the resurrection that you find proof that he was not a man.
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Originally Posted by aa5874
You mean Jesus was a REAL GHOST at around the 15th year of the reign of Tiberius.
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Originally Posted by boneyard bill View Post
What's your point?...
You have NO POINT

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Originally Posted by boneyard bill View Post
.....Tertullian and Marcion dispute the issue of Jesus' "real" nature, but they do not dispute the issue of his appearance. ..
You do not even understand the DISPUTE.

I told you to read "On the FLESH of Christ"

Quote:
..LET US EXAMINE THE LORD'S BODILY SUBSTANCE, for about HIS SPIRITUAL NATURE ALL ARE AGREED.

IT IS HIS FLESH THAT IS IN QUESTION.

Its verity and quality are the points in dispute.

DID IT EVER EXIST?

Whence was it derived?

AND OF WHAT KIND WAS IT?
Do you SEE the question, DID IT EVER EXIST?

Now what MUST TERTULLIAN USE TO PROVE JESUS DID EXIST IN THE FLESH?

HE MUST USE INDEPENDENT SOURCES OF RECORDS OF HIS BIRTH, LIFE, OR EVENTS surrounding JESUS.

TERTULLIAN DID NOT USE ANY JEWISH OR ROMANS RECORDS TO PROVE JESUS WAS PUBLICLY CRUCIFIED or ANY INDEPENDENT SOURCES SUCH AS JOSEPHUS OR TACITUS TO PROVE JESUS EXISTED IN THE FLESH.

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Consequently, the failure of observers to report any ghosts or phantoms does not rebut the claims of these men anymore than it rebuts the claims of those who insisted that Jesus was fully human.
You are NOT making much sense. How would you prove or show that Martin Luther King Jr or any KNOWN historical person of the past did exist in the Flesh when arguing with one who claimed they were PHANTOMS? Would you use Hebrew Scripture and prophecies or independent historical sources of the BIRTH, LIFE and EVENTS surrounding Martin Luther King Jr, or any KNOWN figure of history

Tertullian wrote a book with the INTENTION of PROVING Jesus did EXIST in the FLESH but FAILED to PROVIDE any INDEPENDENT HISTORICAL RECORDS that Jesus did exist in the FLESH in his argument.

TERTULLIAN should have been ABLE to PROVE or SHOW that his JESUS had at least an EARTHLY mother and was PUBLICLY crucified with INDEPENDENT historical sources.

The DISPUTE of the FLESH of Jesus was made and DOCUMENTED and TERTULLIAN UTTERLY FAILED since TERTULLIAN was AWARE of both Josephus and Tacitus but did NOT use them.

The theory that JESUS of the NT is MYTH BASED and that there was NO Jewish or Romans records of Jesus in the FLESH can be MAINTAINED FOREVER or until new evidence can be found.
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Old 12-13-2010, 12:20 PM   #145
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Tertullian wrote a book with the INTENTION of PROVING Jesus did EXIST in the FLESH
But that is not the same thing as writing a book with the intention of proving that Jesus can be seen. Ghosts and phantoms are not necessarily invisible.

ghost
(gōst) pronunciation
n.

1. The spirit of a dead person, especially one believed to appear in bodily likeness to living persons or to haunt former habitats.

No one, including Marcion or Tertullian, would characterize a ghost or a phantom as existing in the flesh. But, by definition, ghosts and phantoms can be seen.

phan·tom also fan·tom (fntm)
n.
1.
a. Something apparently seen, heard, or sensed, but having no physical reality; a ghost or an apparition.
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Old 12-13-2010, 01:37 PM   #146
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Tertullian wrote a book with the INTENTION of PROVING Jesus did EXIST in the FLESH
But that is not the same thing as writing a book with the intention of proving that Jesus can be seen. Ghosts and phantoms are not necessarily invisible.

ghost
(gōst) pronunciation
n.

1. The spirit of a dead person, especially one believed to appear in bodily likeness to living persons or to haunt former habitats.

No one, including Marcion or Tertullian, would characterize a ghost or a phantom as existing in the flesh. But, by definition, ghosts and phantoms can be seen.

phan·tom also fan·tom (fntm)
n.
1.
a. Something apparently seen, heard, or sensed, but having no physical reality; a ghost or an apparition.

So based on the meaning of Phantom, I hope you now SEE that MARCION'S SON OF GOD had NO PHYSICAL REALITY and could NOT be actually crucified by REAL HUMAN BEINGS.

Now, I told you to read "On the FLESH of Christ" so that you can SEE what was DISPUTED. From the VERY FIRST CHAPTER the author will ATTEMPT to PROVE JESUS did EXIST with ACTUAL HUMAN FLESH

"On the FLESH of Christ"
Quote:
..LET US EXAMINE THE LORD'S BODILY SUBSTANCE, for about
HIS SPIRITUAL NATURE ALL ARE AGREED.

IT IS HIS FLESH THAT IS IN QUESTION.

Its verity and quality are the points in dispute.


DID IT EVER EXIST?

Whence was it derived?


AND OF WHAT KIND WAS IT?...
It should be OBVIOUS that TERTULLIAN or the author of "On the FLESH OF CHRIST" MUST HAVE BELIEVED or MOST LIKELY BELIEVED that ANY proof that JESUS HAD FLESH and was ACTUALLY BORN would have DESTROYED MARCION'S PHANTOM.

Tertullian had NO proof, and USED NO Jewish or Roman records just Hebrew Scripture in a book where he INTENDED to show that Jesus did exist in the FLESH.

INSTEAD Tertullian used so-called prophecies of the FUTURE to PROVE the PAST. He used Isaiah 7.14 to PROVE Jesus was born of a woman when Isaiah 7.14 was written hundreds of years before it was ASSUMED Jesus lived.

"On the Flesh of Christ" 17
Quote:
...
Now, it will first be necessary to show what previous reason there was for the Son of God's being born of a virgin.

He who was going to consecrate a new order of birth, must Himself be born after a novel fashion, concerning which Isaiah foretold how that the Lord Himself would give the sign.

What, then, is the sign? "Behold a virgin shall conceive and bear a son." .. Accordingly, a virgin did conceive and bear "Emmanuel, God with us."
There is a way to prove or demonstrate that Marcion's enemies SAW the Phantom and that it had ACTUAL human flesh.

Tertullian used information that was HUNDREDS of years before the Phantom because NOBODY ever even SAW anything like Jesus either as a Ghost, a Phantom or a mere man, except "PAUL" and over 500 others, who saw the resurrected MYTH Jesus.
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Old 12-14-2010, 08:15 AM   #147
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It should be OBVIOUS that TERTULLIAN or the author of "On the FLESH OF CHRIST" MUST HAVE BELIEVED or MOST LIKELY BELIEVED that ANY proof that JESUS HAD FLESH and was ACTUALLY BORN would have DESTROYED MARCION'S PHANTOM.
But, to the Marcionites, the Christus reference in Annals would only have proven that Jesus appeared to other people. It would not prove to the Marcionites that Jesus was composed of actual human flesh because the Marcionites believed that Jesus only appeared to be composed of actual human flesh.
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Tertullian used information that was HUNDREDS of years before the Phantom because NOBODY ever even SAW anything like Jesus either as a Ghost,
That's not true. Tertullian references the gospel of John to point out that Jesus had a mother and brothers. According to the Marcionites, Jesus, in the gospel of John, was tempted by other people to believe that he had a mother and brothers. How could these other people tempt someone who was not visible? Do you think the Marcionites believed that these other people were tempting an invisible Jesus?
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Old 12-14-2010, 12:19 PM   #148
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It should be OBVIOUS that TERTULLIAN or the author of "On the FLESH OF CHRIST" MUST HAVE BELIEVED or MOST LIKELY BELIEVED that ANY proof that JESUS HAD FLESH and was ACTUALLY BORN would have DESTROYED MARCION'S PHANTOM.
But, to the Marcionites, the Christus reference in Annals would only have proven that Jesus appeared to other people. It would not prove to the Marcionites that Jesus was composed of actual human flesh because the Marcionites believed that Jesus only appeared to be composed of actual human flesh.
Please read your own post first.

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Originally Posted by jgreen44 View Post
ghost
(gōst) pronunciation
n.

1. The spirit of a dead person, especially one believed to appear in bodily likeness to living persons or to haunt former habitats.

No one, including Marcion or Tertullian, would characterize a ghost or a phantom as existing in the flesh. But, by definition, ghosts and phantoms can be seen.

phan·tom also fan·tom (fntm)
n.
1.
a. Something apparently seen, heard, or sensed, but having no physical reality; a ghost or an apparition.
Do you understand the difference between "SEEING" Phantoms through hallucinations or dreams and SEEING an actual PUBLIC TRIAL, CRUCIFIXION and DEATH of a real human?

It does not seem so.

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Tertullian used information that was HUNDREDS of years before the Phantom because NOBODY ever even SAW anything like Jesus either as a Ghost,
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Originally Posted by jgreen44 View Post
...That's not true....
Are you a real person? I just quoted passages from "On the Flesh of Christ" that made reference to Hebrew Scripture and you say that it is not true that Tertullian used information that was hundreds of years before the Phantom.

Well, look at this from "On the Flesh of Christ"

Quote:
... "And in your seed shall all nations of the earth be blessed," he adds, "He says not, And to seeds, as of many; but as of one, And to your seed, which is Christ."

When we read and believe these things, what sort of flesh ought we, and can we, acknowledge in Christ?

Surely none other than Abraham's, since Christ is "the seed of Abraham;" none other than Jesse's, since Christ is the blossom of "the stem of Jesse;" none other than David's, since Christ is "the fruit of David's loins;" none other than Mary's, since Christ came from Mary's womb; and, higher still, none other than Adam's, since Christ is "the second Adam."

The consequence, therefore, is that they must either maintain, that those (ancestors) had a spiritual flesh[, that so there might be derived to Christ the same condition of substance, or else allow that the flesh of Christ was not a spiritual one, since it is not traced from the origin of a spiritual stock....
"On the Flesh of Christ" 23
Quote:
..We acknowledge, however, that the prophetic declaration of Simeon is fulfilled, which he spoke over the recently-born Saviour: "Behold, this child is set for the fall and rising again of many in Israel, and for a sign that shall be spoken against."

The sign (here meant) is that of the birth of Christ, according to Isaiah: "Therefore the Lord Himself shall give you a sign: behold, a virgin shall conceive and bear a son."...
Tertullian did USE writings that were hundreds of years BEFORE the Phantom to prove Jesus was born of a virgin.

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Originally Posted by jgreen44 View Post
....Tertullian references the gospel of John to point out that Jesus had a mother and brothers. According to the Marcionites, Jesus, in the gospel of John, was tempted by other people to believe that he had a mother and brothers. How could these other people tempt someone who was not visible? Do you think the Marcionites believed that these other people were tempting an invisible Jesus?
What nonsense! Why would the Marcionites BELIEVE their Son of God was NOT seen 100 years earlier? The Marcionites are CLAIMING people SAW the Phantom and that it had NO HUMAN FLESH.

Tertullian is CLAIMING that his JESUS when SEEN had REAL HUMAN FLESH and was BORN of a VIRGIN as written by the prophet Isaiah.

I told you to read "On the FLESH of Christ".

Now, the Marcionites USED gJohn AGAINST Tertullian.

You seem to forget that there is NO BIRTH NARRATIVE in gJohn and that in gJohn Jesus was the "WORD" and that the "WORD" was GOD and that the WORD was BEFORE ALL things and the CREATOR.

Read "On the FLESH of Christ" and you will see that John 1 was very conducive to Marcionism.

The Marcionites USED John 1.13 against Tertullian. "On the Flesh of Christ"

Quote:
.... What, then, is the meaning of this passage, "Born not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God?"..........

The expression is in the singular number, as referring to the Lord, "He was born of God." And very properly, because Christ is the Word of God, and with the Word the Spirit of God, and by the Spirit the Power of God, and whatsoever else appertains to God.

AS FLESH, however, HE IS NOT OF BLOOD, NOR OF THE WILL OF THE FLESH, NOR OF MAN, because it was by the will of God that the Word was made flesh....
Tertullian has DESTROYED his own argument. He ADMITTED the FLESH of Jesus was NOT of MAN.

Tell me if ALL the enemies of Tertullian SAW the WORD who was GOD whose FLESH was NOT of MAN.
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Old 12-14-2010, 01:46 PM   #149
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you say that it is not true that Tertullian used information that was hundreds of years before the Phantom.
No. I am not saying that. I am saying it is not true that Tertullian believed, as you said...
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Originally Posted by aa5874 View Post
NOBODY ever even SAW anything like Jesus either as a Ghost,
Tertullian believed that the gospel accounts accurately recorded the life of one Jesus of Nazareth. Included in those accounts was an anecdote which (according to Tertullian) Marcionites took as an attempt by human beings to tempt Jesus into believing he had a flesh and blood human family. The human beings who tempted Jesus presumably had to SEE him in order to tempt him.
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Originally Posted by aa5874 View Post
The Marcionites are CLAIMING people SAW the Phantom and that it had NO HUMAN FLESH.
But you have also said...
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Originally Posted by aa5874 View Post
MARCION'S SON OF GOD could have ONLY been an ILLUSION which could NOT be seen by the ENEMIES, OPPONENTS and SKEPTICS of Jesus.
So you are saying that Tertullian wrote that the Marcionites believed Jesus was visible to his supporters but invisible to his enemies. Where is this written in "On the Flesh of Christ"?
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Originally Posted by aa5874 View Post
The Marcionites USED John 1.13 against Tertullian. "On the Flesh of Christ"
.... What, then, is the meaning of this passage, "Born not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God?"..........
Tertullian has DESTROYED his own argument. He ADMITTED the FLESH of Jesus was NOT of MAN.
Come on. Read the whole thing in context...

12 Yet to all who did receive him, to those who believed in his name, he gave the right to become children of God— 13 children born not of natural descent, nor of human decision or a husband’s will, but born of God.

IOW, this is speaking of spiritual birth.
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Originally Posted by aa5874 View Post
Tell me if ALL the enemies of Tertullian SAW the WORD who was GOD whose FLESH was NOT of MAN.
Show me an exact quote somewhere in Tertullian's writings where he specifically states that Marcionites believed Jesus was visible to his supporters but invisible to his enemies.
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Old 12-14-2010, 03:54 PM   #150
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you say that it is not true that Tertullian used information that was hundreds of years before the Phantom.
No. I am not saying that. I am saying it is not true that Tertullian believed, as you said....
What is not true? What did Tertullian believe?

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Originally Posted by jgreen44 View Post
......Tertullian believed that the gospel accounts accurately recorded the life of one Jesus of Nazareth. Included in those accounts was an anecdote which (according to Tertullian) Marcionites took as an attempt by human beings to tempt Jesus into believing he had a flesh and blood human family. The human beings who tempted Jesus presumably had to SEE him in order to tempt him....
So, you ADMIT that you are PRESUMING.


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Originally Posted by jgreen44 View Post
So you are saying that Tertullian wrote that the Marcionites believed Jesus was visible to his supporters but invisible to his enemies. Where is this written in "On the Flesh of Christ"?...
This is what I wrote.
Quote:
MARCION'S SON OF GOD could have ONLY been an ILLUSION which could NOT be seen by the ENEMIES, OPPONENTS and SKEPTICS of Jesus.
Quote:
Originally Posted by jgreen44 View Post
Come on. Read the whole thing in context...
Come on read "On the FLESH of Christ" and you will see if Tertullian used the whole thing.

"On the Flesh of Christ"
Quote:
What, then, is the meaning of this passage, "Born not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God?"

I shall make more use of this passage after I have confuted those who have tampered with it.

They maintain that it was written thus (in the plural) " Who were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God," as if designating those who were before mentioned as "believing in His name," in order to point out the existence of that mysterious seed of the elect and spiritual which they appropriate to themselves.

But how can this be, when all who believe in the name of the Lord are, by reason of the common principle of the human race, born of blood, and of the will of the flesh, and of man, as indeed is Valentinus himself?

The expression is in the singular number, as referring to the Lord, "He was born of God."

And very properly, because Christ is the Word of God, and with the Word the Spirit of God, and by the Spirit the Power of God, and whatsoever else appertains to God.

As flesh, however, He is not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, NOT OF MAN, because it was by the will of God that the Word was made flesh.
Tertullian answered the question. He WROTE that the FLESH of Jesus was NOT of BLOOD, NOT of the WIIL of the FLESH and was NOT of MAN.

The DISPUTE IS OVER.

Whether or not you BELIEVE Jesus did exist or that his ENEMIES SAW HIM, his FLESH was NOT of BLOOD and was NOT of MAN.

"On the FLESH of Christ"
Quote:
.... AS FLESH, however, He is NOT of blood, NOR of the will of the flesh, NOT OF MAN.....
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