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10-07-2007, 10:40 PM | #81 | |
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Jesus was a common name, so you have to be specific , if you are talking about a specific Jesus. |
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10-07-2007, 11:17 PM | #82 | ||
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(Acts, well, if you can tell me when that was written, we might have something to discuss about it.) spin |
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10-07-2007, 11:37 PM | #83 | ||||
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I have no problem with the idea that Paul invented new doctrine and that Christianity is closer to Paulinism than to pre-Pauline Christianity. What I don't see is how a version that denies the existence of pre-Pauline Christianity is better attested in evidence or more plausible. |
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10-07-2007, 11:54 PM | #84 | |||||
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spin |
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10-08-2007, 12:45 AM | #85 | ||
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10-08-2007, 05:50 AM | #86 | |
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10-08-2007, 07:29 AM | #87 | ||
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The Price Is Not Right
http://christiancadre.blogspot.com/2...character.html
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JW: The first thing that Price needs to do here is clearly define the position he is arguing against. The proper related Skeptical argument is that references to the Jewish Bible is Evidence of Fiction as opposed to Proof of fiction. In the bulk of Price's article he is acting as an Advocate for a position as opposed to a Judge. He only discusses supposed reasons to favor his position. We have the following reasons to think that when the Christian Bible refers to the Jewish Bible for its Narrative there is Fiction: 1) The Christian Bible is based on Fiction (the claims of the Impossible) so its credibility is impeached regarding possible claims. 2) The Christian Bible claim is based on an unlikely claim that a Christianity which is based on the end of the Law is the logical succession to a Jewish Bible which is based on the Law. 3) The original Gospel narrative "Mark" itself recognizes that its claims of prophecy fulfillment are all Ironic (unlikely). 4) "Mark" has a primary theme of impeaching the witness of its own Narrative witnesses such as Peter. 5) When subsequent Gospels that used "Mark" as a primary source add information it often has good parallels to the Jewish Bible. 6) When referring to the Jewish Bible Gospels usually prefer Greek translations for the wording over the original Hebrew, especially when there are differences in meaning. 7) And, as the British say, the cruncher, we have instances in Gospels, canonical and not, where there is Disagreement as to the same event, and both versions have parallels to the Jewish Bible. "Matthew" making a whole ass out himself comes to mind. Prices' conclusion: Quote:
Joseph "The Simontic Problem" - An Inventory Of "Mark's" Negative Casting Of Peter |
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10-08-2007, 07:38 AM | #88 |
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For clarity, this is Chris Price, aka Layman, to be distinguished from others with the same last name. He is a lawyer by vocation and an admitted Christian apologist, not someone who is interested in articulating the other side.
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10-08-2007, 09:30 AM | #89 | |
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And , of course, it is not the argument of mythicists that Jesus did not exist, because there are parallels between the OT and NT. |
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10-08-2007, 12:06 PM | #90 | ||
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To discount texts in the discussion of historiography seems about as desperate a stance as anybody could take. To call actually relying on mss that are close in time to events as "drivel" gives a whole new meaning to anti-historicism. It's rather humorous that Spin has utterly internalized the Alexander narrative (despite it's dubious mss support), so much so that he actually thinks that the narrative transcends those texts and can be found in some inscriptions and coins. |
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