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View Poll Results: Has mountainman's theory been falsified by the Dura evidence? | |||
Yes | 34 | 57.63% | |
No | 9 | 15.25% | |
Don't know/don't care/don't understand/want another option | 16 | 27.12% | |
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11-19-2008, 12:08 PM | #461 | ||||
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11-19-2008, 08:18 PM | #462 | |||
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These Laws deliniated both what was required as to the Jews treatment of, and obligations towards "strangers" within the gates", and what would be the minimum requirements expected of such "strangers", and what restrictions these "strangers" would need to submit to to live peaceably among the Israelites. There were also those "strangers" who did not live in eretz Yisrael (The Land of Israel) nor dwell among among the Jews, yet believed in the Scriptures, and accepted and served the Elohim of the Hebrews (Job 1:1) I will forgo the reciting of and expounding upon the many verses that deal with these, and rather just summarise the major categories of these "strangers" as regulated under Jewish law. The first, simplest, and least restrictive category is the -ben Noach-, literally "son of Noah", such person would be expected to abide by the Noachide laws, and be monotheist (although not necessarily even the Elohim of the Hebrews, YHWH_ but preferably) such would not need be observant of the Jewish laws regarding circumcision, diet, and clothing. But still required to rest upon The Sabbath day(s), and would be barred from participation in the Passover. The second category is the "stranger in the gate", the -ger toshav- these were those -proselyte-, Gentiles who upheld and followed to various degrees the laws of the Jews, yet had not submitted to the rite of circumcision, and thus remained outside of The Covenant of The Law. The third category being the true proselyte, the -ger tzediq- a former Gentile who underwent the rite of circumcision, endeavored to obey all of The Law, and thus became fully Jewish, and accounted equally an Israelite. All this had been going on long before NT times. Of particular note in this discussion however, is the first two categories, but particularly the second, The thousands of -ger toshav-Gentiles, deeply involved in the Jews religion for hundreds of years, while yet already restraining from submitting to the rite circumcision. With The LXX they already had their "christ" to believe in, as it was written right there in the LXX text which they read and expounded. When the "times got tough" in the first century, it was easy for these to separate from the legalistic Jewish "Nazarene" messianic factions rulings, and split off into those Gentile dominated "christ cults" that rejected The Law and the practice of circumcision. As I said before, what "Paul" was preaching didn't just come to 'him' in some 'vision' on the road to Damascus. These proto-christ-ians had been hashing over and revising this antinomian so-called "Gospel to the Gentiles" for centuries, and "Paul" became a convenient sock-puppet to disseminate the "new" quasi-pagan theology. The real Nazarenes got sidelined and virtually forgotten, a minor Jewish sect despised by both Christians and Jews. The Christians hating them for their retention of "the works of The Law", and their continued practice of circumcision. The Jews cursing them for their acceptance of the Nazarene Y'shua as being the promised Messiah. |
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11-19-2008, 08:25 PM | #463 | ||
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11-19-2008, 10:46 PM | #464 | ||
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It didn't take much time to turn up this one on Wiki;
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If it were possible through much careful research to ferret out even a few hundred documented cases, complete with names, dates, and the synagogues involved, you would still be able to make the same objection, So I'll not expend the effort. You are free to believe whatever you want. You want to to believe that "Paul" recieved his theology lock stock and barrel solely through the means of a vision? Quote:
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11-20-2008, 12:03 AM | #465 | |||||||
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11-20-2008, 12:09 AM | #466 | |
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Only Eusebian apologists without justification or evidence cling to conjectures of an "early christian origin" based on a first century chronology such as you yourself admit subscription to. I asked you once to cite some evidence for such an apologetic belief structure based on the first century, and its evidence. You responded with a bable of hearsays. What do you expect? To be classed with the infidels? Pull the other leg mate. Best wishes, Pete |
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11-20-2008, 01:42 AM | #467 | ||
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11-20-2008, 07:51 AM | #468 |
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Right on mountainman!
J-D expects me to supply reams of documentation, outside of that found in the Bible and in early Jewish texts, to support a simple and natural premise of the existence of proselytes, while at the same time his acceptance and support of the existence of first and second century Christianity rests upon.......pfffff! Employing the debate tactic of question after question after question endlessly, all the while avoiding having to do any study, research, or ever having to actually provide any more reasonable explantion. Although the readers of this thread may not agree with my explanation, and I have no problem with that, anyone can look back over these posts and determine that I, (and mountainman) have attempted to explain, and provide reasoned information, while the detractors simply employ the dodge of a retreat into the fallacy of many questions. But talk about dumbing down! I can't help wonder how many here are ready to buy into J-Ds suggestion that there never were any proselytes? (and please note that in post # 464 above I did provide evidence of at least one) So a question from me for a change, who reading this thread, besides J-D, seriously doubts the existance of Jewish proselytes during the Old Testement (pre-'Christian") epoch? |
11-21-2008, 06:10 PM | #469 | ||
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About that wand being the same as on Shapur's coins?
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Dear Pat, Just a note to say that while doing some research on the background to the rise and fall of Dura Europa, I came across this reference: Quote:
It would be interesting to compare the "wands". The wands seem as if they may signify some sort of "priest status" / "clergy status" (or rather "Magi status" in the Mazdean / Zoroastrian Official State Religion created by Ardashir c.222 CE) Can we match the wand in the Dura Europa art-work with the wand on the coins of Shapur I? If so, I believe the OP should withdraw the conjecture that we are dealing with "something christian" here, on the Persian frontier. Best wishes, Pete |
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11-21-2008, 09:45 PM | #470 | ||
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