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Old 01-03-2008, 09:11 PM   #211
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Originally Posted by spin View Post
If you want to claim, to support the use of "brother of Jesus called christ", that the TF had a historical core, one which specifically included "christ" as a name (to match the use in AJ 20.200), we will have to stop this conversation....

It seems that you also need to show that the TF, which already shows signs of corruption, was in the text, so that you can appeal to the use of a brother who'd already been mantioned to support AJ 20.200's mention of Jesus.
I have repeatedly refused to use the TF to support the James reference or vice versa. Peter Kirby made a very good argument on his site that they can each stand or fall alone, and I agree with him.
Sorry, I admit my response was badly worded here. It was sufficient for me to note, as you had written the comment regarding the TF and its impact if kosher, that if you wanted to use it here, we'd need to suspend the discussion. My bad.

As to the James reference to Jesus being able to stand alone (ie not dependent on an earlier mention of a "Jesus called christ"), you don't have any reason to propose it except as a counterproposal. The structure "(a certain X), whose name was Y" reflects Josephus; what you propose doesn't.

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He is writing about the crowd under Nero. Nero preceded Josephus in time.
Umm, so? How did the information get into the text (assuming for a moment that it is veracious)?

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Yes, I found at least two examples while searching for other things. But I do not remember where they are.
We would need to look at them. Context usually clarifies usage.

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I did appreciate your efforts to shift the burden.
You claimed that it was an issue for Josephus to refer to James by his brother. It cannot be an issue, on your own list of exceptions, unless you can show that Josephus should have known who his father was and that Josephus should not have known who Christ was. You can do neither. It is your claim, not mine, so the burden is yours. You have not met that burden on this thread, so your (second) issue is moot. It is not actually an issue.
I stated that it was unusual that he used an adelphonymic rather than a patronymic. This was originally a comment of frequency, which taken with the other indicators makes the phrase highly doubtful. I also stated that it was unusual for the fronting of the relationship and that it didn't occur as the start of a defining introduction of a person (see any provisos already discussed). I also stated that Josephus avoided using christos, so much so that it is coincidentally only mentioned with Jesus, the questioned passages. I also mentioned the situation of the qualifier needing to be qualified is unusual, ie not just qualifying James with "the brother of Jesus", but with "the brother of Jesus called christ". In the short space of less than ten words we have four indicators of difficulty.

If we put aside the reference to "christ", you haven't come up with one example which is a strict parallel to "the brother of X called Y whose name was Z...", not even of "the brother of X whose name was Z...", as an introduction of a person. The best you've done is to find a "the son of X whose name was Z" which was not an introduction of the person.

This stretching and fudging to grasp at anything similar I went through with another poster some years ago. What I asked for didn't take rocket science, but a clear understanding of what the phrase in Josephus was actually doing and to understand that it was unparalleled in the works of Josephus.


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Old 01-28-2008, 01:29 PM   #212
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Ben,

I've privately asked Steve Mason to comment, and he has responded. I'm in process of asking him if it is acceptable to post, or quote directly from, his reply, or if I'm going to have to paraphrase it.

DCH

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Thanks, David. I scanned through the list, but am unsure which item(s), if any, you were proferring as an example of a patronym suspended until the second (or later) mention of the name. (Lacking a patronym altogether is different than having one but saving it for later.)

Ben.

ETA: I missed your subsequent post the first time through. That is possibly a somewhat analogous case, but there are some issues, the most important of which is that description of a man in terms of his property does not seem quite the same thing as the usual name of father or family.
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Old 01-28-2008, 09:04 PM   #213
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Ben,

Steve Mason has allowed me to quote a couple paragraphs of his initial response to me that dealt with the question of how Josephus identifies new characters in his narratives:

"I'm not aware of any studies (which doesn't mean there aren't any, since Josephus is pursued by so many disciplines in so many languages -- perhaps there is a journal article somewhere) dealing with this phenomenon. My own commentary work -- just completed War 2 -- tends to confirm your findings [on characters named "Jesus" that confirmed Ben's statement that Josphus tends to introduce his characters at time of first introduction]. This is true generally of ancient writers, but especially with Josephus. Given that in both Roman and Judaean circles a very small pool of names was heavily used, and in the Judaean context Yehoshua is one of the top few, along with Shimon and Yehuda, Josephus needs to identify the person by either patronymic or place of origin, far less often by other indicators such as school affiliation (Menachem the Essaios, etc. -- unless Essaios also marks a place of origin). Only when the narrative is already thus contextualized, usually, does he use the name alone. When he can't be bothered, or doesn't know the relevant identifiers, he can also use the expedient of tis: 'A certain X....'. "

"Life is a bit more careless. In your examples, yes, Jesus the 2iC [2nd in charge] to Ananus [in War 4] is indeed son of Gamalas. But the Iesous of [Life] 246 isn't in Tiberias; he is in Gabara, and may be the one mentioned at 200. The Iesous in Tiberias (from Life 271) is the archon, or council-president (278-79) -- a case of mentioning the name shortly before giving the identification. That also happens occasionally in War. I have wondered whether it is not a deliberate narrative technique: provoking the reader to wonder who this guy is, and then supplying the identification after a few sentences (the way the films frequently raise such questions -- Who is this person? -- and only later supply the answer."

So, Ben, it appears we are both kind of right. Don't you love happy endings?

FWIW, Steve declined to give any opinion on either side of the genuinity of the James passage, although he did think it is much more likely to be genuine than the TF seems to be on the basis of style.

Thank you, Steve.

DCH

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Originally Posted by DCHindley View Post
Ben,

I've privately asked Steve Mason to comment, and he has responded. I'm in process of asking him if it is acceptable to post, or quote directly from, his reply, or if I'm going to have to paraphrase it.

DCH

Quote:
Originally Posted by Ben C Smith View Post

Thanks, David. I scanned through the list, but am unsure which item(s), if any, you were proferring as an example of a patronym suspended until the second (or later) mention of the name. (Lacking a patronym altogether is different than having one but saving it for later.)

Ben.

ETA: I missed your subsequent post the first time through. That is possibly a somewhat analogous case, but there are some issues, the most important of which is that description of a man in terms of his property does not seem quite the same thing as the usual name of father or family.
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