Jeffrey Gibson

What about them? What do the English translators of these texts mean when they use the word "ghost"? Are they really using it with the sense that the English word "ghost" has in such expressions as "ghost and goblins"? Have you looked at the sense that the word "ghost" had in English when these tralsations were made?

And most importantly, why should an older English translation of a Greek passage from a work other than Matthew be determinitave of what Matthew was saying in Mt. 1:18.

In what way?

You do know that AM wrote in Latin not Greek, don't you? Why then do you think that this text is evidence for determining what the Greek text of Mt. 1:18 says? Is the Latin word which is here translated as "ghost" the Latin equivalent of the word in Mt. 1:18 that AAAman and others think mean "ghost"?

Do you even know what the Latin word is?

Here's the text:

Please show me where we find anything within it that is the equivalent to the Greek text of Mt. 1:18, especially the expression ἐκ πνεύματος
ἁγίου or of Jerome's Latin version of it (i.e., de Spiritu Sancto).


Jeffrey

aa5874

Does anybody on this board know Greek?

KJV Matt 1.18 .....she was found with child of the Holy GHOST

NAS Matt 1.18....she was found to be with child by the Holy SPIRIT.

Jeffrey Gibson

Wow! Proof texting. This the best evidence you have?? A quotation from an old translation of

Τοῦ δὲ Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ ἡ γ�*νεσις οὕτως ἦν. μνηστευθείσης τῆς μητρὸς αὐτοῦ Μαρίας τῷ Ἰωσήφ, πρὶν ἢ συνελθεῖν αὐτοὺς εὑρ�*θη ἐν γαστρὶ ἔχουσα ἐκ πνεύματος ἁγίου.

that seems to say what you "know" only by reference to the KJVs (as opposed, say, to the NEB's or the RSV's or the JB's) translations of this verse, Matthew was intent to say?

In any case, it is rank petitio principii to assume, as you apparently do, not only (a) that that πνεύματος means "ghost" or that in 1611 the word "ghost" (especially when modified by "holy") bore and was here being used with the meaning that the word now has in contemporary usage, but (b) that ἐκ in the expression ἐκ πνεύματος ἁγίου means "by" or "by means of", let alone that when Matthew says that that Mary was εὑρ�*θη ἐν γαστρὶ ἔχουσα ἐκ πνεύματος ἁγίου, that he has excluded any notion of human participation in Jesus' conception.

Care to provide some actual evidence for your assumptions?

Jeffrey

Jeffrey Gibson

Is that really what Jn 4:24 (πνεῦμα ὁ θεός, καὶ τοὺς προσκυνοῦντας αὐτὸν ἐν πνεύματι καὶ ἀληθείᾳ δεῖ προσκυνεῖν) says?

Jeffrey

Jeffrey Gibson

I'm a bit taken back that you actually have to ask. I've often thought that you read what's posted here without a scintilla of care and comprehension. Thanks for confirming my belief.



Jeffrey

Sheshbazzar

Come on Jeffrey, don't be shy, don't withhold from us the great extent of your erudition and your overwhelming knowledge and wisdom.
Yes, please DO continue to expound to us your version of "truth", digging your hole ever the deeper.