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04-25-2010, 04:14 PM | #41 | |
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A scribe is not just anybody who copies something. |
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04-25-2010, 05:22 PM | #42 | ||
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I don't understand your point. An author around the first century is complaining that he has seen copies of his own works that have been altered. He was upset about it. What problem do you have with that. It is evidence that books have been altered even within the lifetime of the author himself. Do you deny books have been changed throughout history, especially ancient ones? |
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04-25-2010, 05:35 PM | #43 | ||
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It is similar to the difference between counterfeit and legal tender currency. |
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04-25-2010, 11:45 PM | #44 | ||
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04-26-2010, 02:49 AM | #45 |
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You say that scribes had a copying technique which guaranteed 100% accuracy, but you haven't explained what this technique is supposed to be, because there is no such technique and couldn't possibly be.
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04-26-2010, 10:10 AM | #46 | |
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Can you prove or demonstrate that a single scribe made a single mistake in all the writings of Josephus? Can you demonstrate that the forged "TF" in Antiquities 18.3.3 was FIRST done by a scribe without authorisation? It MUST be that all alterations done to produce the very same result, a bogus history of Jesus believers, was master-minded by some central authority and not scribes. |
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04-26-2010, 10:37 AM | #47 | |
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I do not even have to be a scribe to copy your post 100% accurately. I will do it now free of cost. "You say that scribes had a copying technique which guaranteed 100% accuracy, but you haven't explained what this technique is supposed to be, because there is no such technique and couldn't possibly be." And if you find any errors, I will re-write it without any additional charge. |
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04-26-2010, 01:27 PM | #48 | ||
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There is no proof-reading technique which can be guaranteed to produce 100% accuracy in 100% of cases. Ask anybody in the editing profession if you don't believe me. No human technique or process is infallible because no human being is infallible. If scribal copying were infallibly 100% accurate, all the manuscripts of The Canterbury Tales, for example, would be letter-by-letter identical. But they aren't. There are many variations, and collating them is a major topic of Chaucerian research. How do you explain that? |
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04-26-2010, 01:41 PM | #49 |
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As I understand it, Christians didn't have their works copied by professional scribes until the late 3rd or 4th century. Before that, it was just some layman Christian who had time to spare -- and was possibly illiterate; just copying the shapes.
ΚΑΙΙΗΣΟΥΣΟΛΕΓΟΜΕΝΟΣΙΟΥΣΤΟ ΣΟΙΟΝΤΕΣΕΚΠΕΡΙΤΟΜΗΣΟΥΤΟΙΜ ΟΝΟΙΣΥΝΕΡΓΟΙΕΙΣΤΗΝΒΑΣΙΛΕΙ ΑΝΤΟΥΘΕΟΥΟΙΤΙΝΕΣΕΓΕΝΗΣΘΗΣ ΑΝΜΟΙΠΑΡΗΓΟΡΙΑ Now imagine entire manuscripts like this. All of the letters in one run on sentence like this. Yeah, I'd probably make some mistakes too. |
04-26-2010, 01:52 PM | #50 |
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