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02-09-2008, 05:46 PM | #591 | ||||
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02-09-2008, 06:16 PM | #592 | ||
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By the way, you still have failed to substantiate your claim that Daniel 5:31 could not be translated 'receive' like so many translators translate it. |
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02-09-2008, 06:34 PM | #593 | |
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I didn't say "ranting". I said "raving". There's a sufficient difference for you to take note of it. They are not synonyms.
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02-09-2008, 06:39 PM | #594 | |||
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Besides the wall, what else did Nehemiah build? Quote:
While we are dealing with your ridiculous distortions of Daniel, while you'd like Artaxerxes I to have issued a proclamation to rebuild in order to force-fit the 70 weeks vision to your religious commitments, you've got the wrong Artaxerxes. Ezra 4:21 shows that Artaxerxes I stops any building. It is Artaxerxes II in Ezra 7 who allows building to continue. spin |
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02-09-2008, 06:44 PM | #595 | ||
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Look. Instead of your playing the referee - for which role you obviously lack the required expertise - let’s play a more balanced, specific game. If I say, for instance, that two words are unique to the Aramaic of Daniel as compared with any other Aramaic ever, both being high titles (‘counselor’, ‘companion’), and four more words occur only in the Aramaic of Daniel and early (i.e. sixth-fourth century) documents (‘satrap’, ‘judge’, ‘magistrate’, ‘certified’), three of these also being high titles and one part of official style, and that there is no evidence that any of these six legal terms survived the Persian period, my point as regard the linguistic isolation of Daniel in second-century Judea will be quite clear. See the source here, p.42. Score a hit, prove my proposition to be false - if you can. |
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02-09-2008, 08:48 PM | #596 | |||
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It is, in fact, your claim that I'm throwing back at you. No such a thing has been found in Judea to attest second-century written Aramaic similar to Daniel's. There are several Aramaics as used by the Jews in the mid-2nd cent. or shortly afterward, such like Hasmonaean, Targumic and Qumranic, but they are not similar to Daniel's; they may not be called 'Imperial' in any reasonable meaning of the word. Daniel remains an island in the linguistic sea of Judea during the Hellenistic period. And: [blah] is ex post rationalization from the presumption that Daniel was written in or about 164 B.C. So don't try to make me out to be the one asking you to meet an overly stringent standard of evidence. Had you been more careful about how you chose to phrase your claim, maybe you wouldn't be in this bind. Quote:
And now you want to impugn my background and tell me that I'm not qualified, after your first-class demonstration of backpedaling and handwaving? Quote:
After all, if there's a paucity of Aramaic source texts from this period out there, then it shouldn't be hard for you to show your claim. |
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02-09-2008, 08:53 PM | #597 | |
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02-09-2008, 09:07 PM | #598 | ||
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spin |
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02-10-2008, 02:04 AM | #599 | ||||
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Is it true or not that Daniel uses several words denoting official posts and dealings of the Persian Empire, which have so far not been found in Aramaic documents dated post 330 BC? Quote:
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02-10-2008, 09:24 AM | #600 | |
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