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Old 10-13-2005, 08:44 PM   #21
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Originally Posted by spin
That's not honest, judge, not honest.


spin
Oh gawd. Spare me the guilt trip Spin

Quote:
Originally Posted by Spin
It is often used to mean the man of a woman, ie husband,
So what!

Look at the following example. Have a good look.

Matthew 7:9

Which man/gowra among you, if his son asks for bread, will give him a stone?

This example has nothing to do with "man of a woman". It is a man who has a son IOW a father not necessarily a husband though.
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Old 10-13-2005, 09:51 PM   #22
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Originally Posted by judge
It is a man who has a son IOW a father not necessarily a husband though.
While a man who has a son is a father, that doesn't make the word "man" mean "father". The sentences you provided all seem to me to read just fine with "man". Do you have an example sentence where the meaning must be "father"?
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Old 10-13-2005, 09:59 PM   #23
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While a man who has a son is a father, that doesn't make the word "man" mean "father". The sentences you provided all seem to me to read just fine with "man". Do you have an example sentence where the meaning must be "father"?
Yes! Matthew 1:16

The word must mean father in Matthew 1:16 because husband is indicated just three verses later by a different word!

If husband was meant it would use the word used for husband just three verses later

Matthew 1:19 tells us her husband is her baala not her gowra

Therefore the man in Matthew 1:16 must be her father.

As I mention there are many contradictions in the bible this just isn't one of them.

This one word solves all the contradictions. It gives us the required 42 generations and it means Joseph does not have two fathers.
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Old 10-14-2005, 12:05 AM   #24
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From this thread:
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Originally Posted by spin
It is you who are ignoring the significance of the word GOWRA as used everywhere in order to plead a special meaning in Mt 1:16.

Please read Mt 19:5 to understand your problem:

... a man (GOWRA) shall leave his father (ABWHY, ie AB-WHY his father) and his mother ...

The linguistics of the situation are simple: look at how the word is used in other situations and see how that applies to the specific case you are analysing. GOWRA means "man" always has, and doesn't mean "father". Your one attempt in the past is to forget that GOWRA means "man" in order to attempt to force a second word for "father" because a verse talks about a man (GOWRA) and his daughter.

You ignore every other use of GOWRA. That's why I asked you to look at them in order to check your premises for your wayward analysis of Mt 1:16. So you ignored my comments on Mt 1:16. Funny, judge, very funny.
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Originally Posted by spin
Obviously, GBRH does not mean "father". It is the basic Aramaic word for "man". When the word is governed by a genitive it means "husband", just as the Aramaic word for woman )NTTH, when governed by a genitive, usually means "wife" - "his woman" or "her man". B(LH (coming from Baal = "lord") is often translated as husband.

If we turn to the genealogy, we find that it is a long series of X begat Y. This ends with Joseph, ie Jacob begat Joseph in 1:16 with a last use of the word "begat". "Jacob begat {)WLD} Joseph, man (=husband) of Mary, of whom (ie Joseph) was begat {)TYLD} Jesus, called the messiach."

In an effort to make sense out of the discrepancy regarding the last section of the genealogy, ie that there appears to be 13 generations rather than 14, you follow an erroneous linguistic change to bring Mary into the line to make the 14th person, choosing to baselessly change GBRH from "man" to "father". The excuse being that in Mt 7:9 the man {GBR)} has a son, so GBR) must mean "father", even though there is nothing wrong with saying that a man had a son and the word "man" doesn't mean "father" though the sentence does imply that the man is a father.

There is already a word meaning "father" in Aramaic, )B), so there is no need to invent another in order to create a missing generation for the genealogy.

GBRH is never used to mean "father", despite the fact that a sentence can be construed to imply a man is a father (as in Mt 7:9). (It's like saying "that woman has a daughter", so "woman" means "mother": the logic simply doesn't work.)

There is not sufficient motivation in the genealogical problem to consider taking the unprecedented step of redefining GBRH. Summary:
  1. GBRH doesn't mean "father"
  2. The text uses male names in the genealogy
  3. The genealogy is constructed using the verb YLD and Mary isn't connected with the verb to the genealogy.

Bye, bye. :wave:


spin
judge is back repeating the same refuted stuff. Not honest, judge, not honest. Talking about playing games, you're back playing this old game of you've forgotten so they must have forgotten.


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Old 10-14-2005, 02:07 AM   #25
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Its more a linguistc problem, I guess. judge has to find an example where the word is used like:

Jack is the GBRH of Jackie, when you know for sure that Jackie is his daughter (from another source)

and not examples like "if a GBRH has a son", that only means that "a man has a son", I guess the aramaic GBRH is equal to the german word "Mann", which can be read as "man" and as "husband" aswell. The problem exists only in english. Besides if its true what spin claimes, that there is a word for father in aramaic, it would be stupid if Mathew did not use ist, espacially when he is writting a genealogy.

Greetings from Heidelberg.
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Old 10-14-2005, 04:59 AM   #26
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Quote:
Originally Posted by spin

judge is back repeating the same refuted stuff. Not honest, judge, not honest.


spin
Sad Spin.

Can't deal with the evidence so you resort to personal attacks.

Of course infidels (some at least) will go to any length to see as many contradictions as they can in the bible.

It is no different from fundies trying to deny that there are any contradictions in the bible.

The truth lies somewhere in the middle.

There are many contradictions, but this just aint one.

All the best.
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Old 10-14-2005, 05:14 AM   #27
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnnyboy

and not examples like "if a GBRH has a son", that only means that "a man has a son", I guess the aramaic GBRH is equal to the german word "Mann", which can be read as "man" and as "husband" aswell. The problem exists only in english. Besides if its true what spin claimes, that there is a word for father in aramaic, it would be stupid if Mathew did not use ist, espacially when he is writting a genealogy.

Greetings from Heidelberg.
Funny you don't think it is stupid here as well.

Matthew 7:9

Which man/gowra among you, if his son asks for bread, will give him a stone?

You be the skeptic and you find as many contracdictions as you can...and I'll be the fundy and try to deny them all.
It is all a game and the truth lies somewhere in the middle.
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Old 10-14-2005, 05:57 AM   #28
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Hi judge,

Well what I tried to say is, that matthew would have used the normal word for fahter, and not GBRH.

And no your example is not valid, because GBRH is here just used as "man" in common sense. Yes a man can have a son.

Besides, it seems that your the only one who thinks that the gospel of matthew was written in aramaic. Please prove that. Without strong evidence on that, the whole discussion is nonsense.

Greetings from Heidelberg.
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Old 10-14-2005, 06:45 AM   #29
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Especially since Matthew is dependent on Mark, which is Greek, as well as the LXX and probably Q.
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Old 10-14-2005, 08:57 AM   #30
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Quote:
Originally Posted by judge
Yes! Matthew 1:16

The word must mean father in Matthew 1:16 because husband is indicated just three verses later by a different word!
No, it could just mean "man". There is nothing that requires it to mean "father".

You need an example like the one Johnnyboy suggested.
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