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10-13-2005, 08:44 PM | #21 | ||
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Look at the following example. Have a good look. Matthew 7:9 Which man/gowra among you, if his son asks for bread, will give him a stone? This example has nothing to do with "man of a woman". It is a man who has a son IOW a father not necessarily a husband though. |
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10-13-2005, 09:51 PM | #22 | |
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10-13-2005, 09:59 PM | #23 | |
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The word must mean father in Matthew 1:16 because husband is indicated just three verses later by a different word! If husband was meant it would use the word used for husband just three verses later Matthew 1:19 tells us her husband is her baala not her gowra Therefore the man in Matthew 1:16 must be her father. As I mention there are many contradictions in the bible this just isn't one of them. This one word solves all the contradictions. It gives us the required 42 generations and it means Joseph does not have two fathers. |
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10-14-2005, 12:05 AM | #24 | ||
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10-14-2005, 02:07 AM | #25 |
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Its more a linguistc problem, I guess. judge has to find an example where the word is used like:
Jack is the GBRH of Jackie, when you know for sure that Jackie is his daughter (from another source) and not examples like "if a GBRH has a son", that only means that "a man has a son", I guess the aramaic GBRH is equal to the german word "Mann", which can be read as "man" and as "husband" aswell. The problem exists only in english. Besides if its true what spin claimes, that there is a word for father in aramaic, it would be stupid if Mathew did not use ist, espacially when he is writting a genealogy. Greetings from Heidelberg. |
10-14-2005, 04:59 AM | #26 | |
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Can't deal with the evidence so you resort to personal attacks. Of course infidels (some at least) will go to any length to see as many contradictions as they can in the bible. It is no different from fundies trying to deny that there are any contradictions in the bible. The truth lies somewhere in the middle. There are many contradictions, but this just aint one. All the best. |
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10-14-2005, 05:14 AM | #27 | |
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Matthew 7:9 Which man/gowra among you, if his son asks for bread, will give him a stone? You be the skeptic and you find as many contracdictions as you can...and I'll be the fundy and try to deny them all. It is all a game and the truth lies somewhere in the middle. |
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10-14-2005, 05:57 AM | #28 |
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Hi judge,
Well what I tried to say is, that matthew would have used the normal word for fahter, and not GBRH. And no your example is not valid, because GBRH is here just used as "man" in common sense. Yes a man can have a son. Besides, it seems that your the only one who thinks that the gospel of matthew was written in aramaic. Please prove that. Without strong evidence on that, the whole discussion is nonsense. Greetings from Heidelberg. |
10-14-2005, 06:45 AM | #29 |
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Especially since Matthew is dependent on Mark, which is Greek, as well as the LXX and probably Q.
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10-14-2005, 08:57 AM | #30 | |
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You need an example like the one Johnnyboy suggested. |
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