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Old 05-08-2006, 11:36 AM   #51
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Clivedurdle
Did gnosticism start with Basilides, or is this a specific formulation?
I believe that he is the first heretic identified as 'gnostic' in the catalogues of heresies. I know that it is possible to assert that Simon Magus was a gnostic, and the difficulty of defining gnosticism means that such a claim will have plausibility. But did he call himself that, and do the heresiologists call him this? (In view of the uselessness of most definitions, I rather favour sticking with whatever the ancient usage is). I don't think so, myself, but of course I am willing to learn otherwise.

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Old 05-08-2006, 11:47 AM   #52
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Originally Posted by Gamera
In biblical studies, the aims drive the conclusions....
I sincerely hope you are roundly wrong about that. But you are probably correct in the case of at least some.

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To construct an historical Jesus for use to rebut the gospel Jesus makes absolutely no epistomological sense, since there is no other historical Jesus outside the gospel texts.
There may, however, be another historical Jesus or two lurking within the gospel texts. Reading a text against itself is not a brand new enterprise in historical studies.

There is also Paul; he stands outside, and apparently earlier than, the gospel texts. And Josephus and Tacitus are always worth closer study.

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The valorization of the Gospel of Thomas as prior to the gospel is just one more example of this agenda, since there is no paleographcial reason to assume GOT's earlier origin (or at least, the evidence is dubious at best).
Paleography (a form of external criticism) is not the only issue at stake. There may be internal indications, too.

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Old 05-08-2006, 12:00 PM   #53
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Roger Pearse
I believe that he is the first heretic identified as 'gnostic' in the catalogues of heresies. I know that it is possible to assert that Simon Magus was a gnostic, and the difficulty of defining gnosticism means that such a claim will have plausibility. But did he call himself that, and do the heresiologists call him this?
In Eusebius and Gnosticism, the first article (pages 291-310) in the Orthodoxy and Heresy section of Eusebius, Christianity, and Judaism (or via: amazon.co.uk), Birger A. Pearson makes a case for limiting what we would call true gnostics in Eusebius to those he designates by the phrase knowledge falsely called. The problem with using the actual term gnostic is that the Greek word is applied to orthodox and heretical alike. But knowledge falsely called is applied only to the heretical, and almost exclusively (in Eusebius) to those whom we would identify as gnostics, to wit, the following list of people or groups (from page 304):
Simon Magus, Menander, Saturninus, Basilides, Carpocrates, Valentinians, Cerdo and Marcionites, and Manichaeans.
It is worth a read, at any rate, since I too am interested in using the terms as the ancients would have used them (though I am quite willing to desert their nomenclature and invent my own when the ancients are unclear or contradictory on the matter), for the sake of accuracy and clarity.

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Old 05-08-2006, 12:02 PM   #54
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Gamera
The valorization of the Gospel of Thomas as prior to the gospel is just one more example of this agenda, since there is no paleographcial reason to assume GOT's earlier origin (or at least, the evidence is dubious at best). So it's no cooincidence Crossan "concludes" GOT is earlier. It's part of a larger agenda.
Is using paleography as the sole dating criterion something you would do for other texts such as, for example, the gospels?

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Old 05-08-2006, 02:38 PM   #55
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Originally Posted by Julian
I just want to raise a small protest against the start of gnosticism with Basilides. Valentinus can be placed slightly earlier and E. Pagels would place gnosticism even earlier than that. Seeing how gnosticism draws much from platonism it is reasonable to assume that gnosticism has been around since the beginning but probably not wearing christian clothes from day one.
We have reasonably good evidence that Valentinus was active through much of the reign of Antoninus Pius.

This would seem to put him slightly later than the conventional dates for Basilides.

Andrew Criddle
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Old 05-08-2006, 03:21 PM   #56
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But was Zarathustra gnostic?!?
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Old 05-08-2006, 03:26 PM   #57
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Originally Posted by Clivedurdle
But was Zarathustra gnostic?!?
Isn't the answer obvious?
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Old 05-09-2006, 02:58 AM   #58
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Originally Posted by Ben C Smith
I sincerely hope you are roundly wrong about that. But you are probably correct in the case of at least some.
I share the concerns about the integrity of NT studies. This is why I spend my time on patristics!

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Roger Pearse
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Old 05-09-2006, 03:06 AM   #59
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Originally Posted by Gamera
In biblical studies, the aims drive the conclusions, since there is little substantial evidence of any of gospel narrative outside the NT.
Agree in part, but it's more complicated than that. The system is set up in such a way that the conclusions are skewed, not that all the researchers are dishonest (although the system inevitably pre-selectes for agreement).

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To construct an historical Jesus for use to rebut the gospel Jesus makes absolutely no epistomological sense, since there is no other historical Jesus outside the gospel texts.
Indeed.

Quote:
The valorization of the Gospel of Thomas as prior to the gospel is just one more example of this agenda, since there is no paleographcial reason to assume GOT's earlier origin (or at least, the evidence is dubious at best). So it's no cooincidence Crossan "concludes" GOT is earlier. It's part of a larger agenda.
Ah, there is a confusion here. We do not date *texts* by paleography, but *manuscripts containing the text*. Obviously a manuscript copy may be up to 20 centuries later than an ancient text that it contains.

I have seen people write as if the gospels must have been composed shortly before the first extant manuscript fragment or first quotation in other now extant literature. This, of course, is nonsense, but it bears repetition because I notice that you've been caught too! A similar argument would date most classical literature to the middle ages.

All our Christian and heretical papyri start in the second century. There probably were insufficient Christians around for much to survive, statistically, before then. Of course that is the period of the rise (and start of the decline?) of gnosticism, and, since gnosticism didn't involve being abused by the authorities on a regular basis, there were probably at least as many people who might be classified as gnostics in some sense in Egypt in that period as Christians.

Dating heretical texts as early as possible and the NT as late as possible is a game that has been played by people of genuine scholarly ability for at least a century. It is one reason why I treat everything coming out of the discipline with suspicion.

All the best,

Roger Pearse
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Old 05-09-2006, 04:12 AM   #60
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Chris Weimer
Isn't the answer obvious?
No it is not! That is why I asked it! Belief in a main god and a sub god and in secret knowledge did not start in the timeframe of xianity!

I am unclear why gnosticism is treated as a heresy - Judaism and other religions are not. Heresy means going away from xian beliefs, but as it is clearly pre existing how can it go away? Do you not have to have some form of xian belief to be heretical? It looks like some gnostics added xian beliefs - or possibly invented them!

Why not HJism as a heresy of gnosticism?

The Gnostic Paul: Gnostic Exegesis of the Pauline Letters (or via: amazon.co.uk)

Pagels - Gnostic Paul
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