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Old 04-12-2008, 12:11 PM   #31
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If I were going to write a forgery in the hopes of springing up a new religion (Christianity) drawing from another religion (Judaism) I would be very careful not to betray the fraud through inaccuracies. I would fact check and make everything as pristinely accurate as possible in the hope that the fraud could be passed off as genuine.

If the mere fact that people wrote about something made it true than Zeus, Odin and Quetzlcoatl would be "real" too. One has nothing to do with the other. In fact, I disagree with the poster who said that "believability" is a requirement. Apparently, the more unbelievable the story the more people will fall for it.
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Old 04-12-2008, 01:18 PM   #32
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Would you please be kind enough to define for us what you mean by "divinely insp[i]red"?

Jeffrey
I knew this would be coming from you. Next you'll be wanting to know what "is" is...
No. I'm still wanting to know what you mean by "divinely inspired". After all, we cannot evaluate the validity or the import of your implicit claim about NT witnesses unless we know what it is you are actually claiming when you say that they thought they were "divinely inspired".

So .. will you tell us or not?

Jeffrey
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Old 04-12-2008, 01:36 PM   #33
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Jeffrey, we seem to be running off on one of your tangents.

Paul claims to have been personally inspired by a higher power. I don't think that Paul or pseudo-Paul claims that the words in his epistles have the same divine status as the Torah.
OK. But unless you are more specific about what you mean by "inspired", and unless and until we're sure that you meaning is the same as xxx what's his name's, your assertions are may be nothing more than equivocations.

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But this question came up when Gamera tried to make an analogy between 4 witnesses to an auto accident and the 4 gospels, and claimed that the disagreements between the gospels were a sign of independent witnessing, and therefore made them more reliable.
Yes, and that's why the question about what Paul thought about himself is irrelevant here. The issue is not what Paul thought about his "witness". It's whether the evangelists thought that they were "divinely inspired" (especially when it came to relating the biographical details of the Jesus story), and if they were, whether their understanding of what this means and entails is, as X what's his name seems to assume, the same as what X what's his name thinks being "divinely inspired" means and entails.

So I ask again: what definition of being "divinely inspired" is being asserted here and what is the evidence that the evangelists believed themselves to be "inspired" at all, let alone according to X what's his name's definition of this phenomenon?

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Old 04-12-2008, 01:53 PM   #34
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I knew this would be coming from you. Next you'll be wanting to know what "is" is...
No. I'm still wanting to know what you mean by "divinely inspired". After all, we cannot evaluate the validity or the import of your implicit claim about NT witnesses unless we know what it is you are actually claiming when you say that they thought they were "divinely inspired".

So .. will you tell us or not?

Jeffrey
LOL. You're just mad because you threw up a softball and I hit it. Now you want a re-do of the pitch...

Funny, you had no problem with what "divinely inspired" meant when you made your claim...

I see how you play your little game.
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Old 04-12-2008, 02:05 PM   #35
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Originally Posted by Jeffrey Gibson View Post

No. I'm still wanting to know what you mean by "divinely inspired". After all, we cannot evaluate the validity or the import of your implicit claim about NT witnesses unless we know what it is you are actually claiming when you say that they thought they were "divinely inspired".

So .. will you tell us or not?

Jeffrey
LOL. You're just mad
I am??

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because you threw up a softball and I hit it.
You did?

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Now you want a re-do of the pitch...
I do??

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Funny, you had no problem with what "divinely inspired" meant when you made your claim...
What claim did I make? So far as I can see I've only asked a question about your claim.

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I see how you play your little game.
And I see that you are not going to tell us what you mean by "divinely inspired".

Jeffrey
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Old 04-12-2008, 02:47 PM   #36
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I think that the synoptics point to an earlier tradition coming from a few people who came up with the sayings of Jesus. You can't say that the gospel authors even drew on their own knowledge to write what they did. It's possible though that the original "source" of the synoptics made up everything that happened, although not likely.
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Old 04-12-2008, 03:45 PM   #37
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2 Timothy 3:16 (King James Version)
All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness
You do realise that 2 Tim. was forged by someone else in the name of Paul.
How inspired by God is it to forge a letter?

Furthermore -
The first "is" is not present in the Greek - the phrase is ambiguous.
It does NOT say all scripture is inspired by God.

Finally -
when this letter was written, was it ITSELF included in scripture?
No.

So,
this is NOT a claim to be inspired by God at all.


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Old 04-12-2008, 04:21 PM   #38
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Originally Posted by xaxxat View Post
2 Timothy 3:16 (King James Version)
All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness
You do realise that 2 Tim. was forged by someone else in the name of Paul.
How inspired by God is it to forge a letter?
Pseudepigraphy was not considered or recognized by Jews as forgery, especially in testamentary literature like Timothy. On this, see the discussion of the matter in Bauckham's Word Commentary on 1 & 2nd Peter and Jude
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Furthermore -
The first "is" is not present in the Greek - the phrase is ambiguous.
It does NOT say all scripture is inspired by God.
As a number of commentators have noted, there is reason to think, given the grammar and syntax of the verse, that the attribute "inspired of God" (what ever that means!) construes not with GRAFE, but with the extression translated above as "profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness" i.e., "all GRAFE which is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness is god breathed".

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Finally -
when this letter was written, was it ITSELF included in scripture?
No.
The reference seems to be to the Hebrew Scriptures, especially since there was no NT when "Paul" wrote these words.

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So,
this is NOT a claim to be inspired by God at all.


Iasion
More importantly, it does not specify what the author means by, or thought was entailed in something that is described as, "divinely inspired".

Jeffrey
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Old 04-12-2008, 04:28 PM   #39
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Nevermind
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Old 04-12-2008, 04:31 PM   #40
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Nevermind
Umm .. what was answered?

Jeffrey
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