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02-14-2004, 05:23 PM | #21 | |
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(a*) the verse markings do not correspond to the actual hebrew textual divisions (b) in english, in a sentence divided by a full colon, the left hand side of the sentence relates to the right hand side, not to some earlier sentence, the passage is saying "give me first born male cows and sheep on their eighth day of life (c) written torah cannot be read in a meaningful fashion without referring to oral torah and oral torah is completely unequivocal on this issue, human sacrifice to HaShem is stritcly forbidden in edit: i should modify (a) to say that "likewise" can be appropriate if the phrase is rearranged. in second edit: to infer "human son" from this context of "sons" is equivalent to inferring "bestiality" from "animal husbandry". |
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02-14-2004, 05:54 PM | #22 | ||
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http://www.worldhistory.com/wiki/L/Louis-Cappel.htm Quote:
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02-14-2004, 05:57 PM | #23 | |||||
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Dado:
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--J.D. |
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02-14-2004, 06:03 PM | #24 | |
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the article is simply wrong, as is your interpretation for the reasons given. your analytical approach to the passage follows the christian tradition of dealing with written Torah, and you are, of course, free to believe what you like. |
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02-14-2004, 06:08 PM | #25 | |||
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--J.D. |
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02-14-2004, 06:14 PM | #26 | |
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i'm afraid you have the wrong idea about why i'm here. i am not here to argue with you. what you believe about this or any other passage has no meaningful effect on my life: you said yours, i said mine, anybody who is undecided - and actualy cares - can research further on their own.
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02-14-2004, 06:24 PM | #27 | |||
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If I were an unkind man and given to speculation, I would wonder if you had not actually read the article you condemn. Had you read the article, you would have encountered a reference to the wonderful Isaiah where YHWH states he ordered the sacrifice of children--"passing them through the fire"--in order to demonstrate his power through horror. The "point" from an historical standpoint is that as one time child sacrifice was part of the cult. It did eventually become condemned and passed from practice. One of the problems the writer of the Isaiah passage was how to explain the existence of the practice--which, presummably, no longer existed. This is the Biblical Criticism and History forum [Cue Thunderclap.--Ed.] It is not the "What I Want to Believe" forum. --J.D. |
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02-14-2004, 06:29 PM | #28 | |
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Points #a and #b don't seem to reflect the text. KN, "thus, in the same manner", is fairly unequivocal in the context. What exact problem do you see with it? BKWR BNYK, "your firstborn sons", comes before any reference to animals in the passage and so should be read literally as human children. What is interesting is the notion introduced in Ex 34:19-20 of "redeeming" the firstborn sons. spin |
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02-14-2004, 06:33 PM | #29 | |
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-dado. |
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02-14-2004, 06:34 PM | #30 |
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Fine . . . bring facts into the discussion. . . . Picks up ball and runs away. . . . Anyways, according to Collins and--to my memory Levenson [Death of the Beloved Son--Ed.], who is used as a reference by Collins--the "reedeming" is a later version--it provides an "out" which, incidentally, is continued today--according to Levenson methinks--as a payment given to the Rabbi. Why I should not post on memory. . . . --J.D. |
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