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Old 06-30-2008, 10:09 AM   #11
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Joshua not only succeeded Moses but also popped up the mountain to collect the laws with him and hung around in the tent when god came calling. Unlike Moses he did get to cross the Jordan.

coincidently I heard that Joseph of Arimathia [a town that never existed] means 'good disciple' but can someone demonstrate the how this meaning comes about.

Oh and I heard that Moses' Joshua was Josh bar Nun, of the fish!

"[T]he son of him whose name was as the name of a fish would lead them [the Israelites] into the land." (Genesis Rabba 97:3.)
[from wikipedia on Nun]
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Old 06-30-2008, 10:40 AM   #12
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Originally Posted by gstafleu View Post
Jesus=Yoshua/Yeshua, and that means something like "God saves." Plus, Yoshua was the one who led the Jews to the promised land. So, yes, "Jesus" did have significance for the early Christians = Jews.

Gerard Stafleu
As far as I also know, "Jesus" simply means "savior".

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jesus
Quote:
The name "Jesus" is an Anglicization of the Greek Ίησους (Iēsous), itself a Hellenization of the Hebrew יהושע (Yehoshua) or Hebrew-Aramaic ישוע (Yeshua), meaning "YHWH rescues".
The Greek version could possibly have a more mystical meaning? For example considering "IE" being used for various Greek gods such as Apollo, I think I remember reading? Connected also with "Io" (as also in Iopiter) and "Ia"?
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Old 06-30-2008, 10:42 AM   #13
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Originally Posted by jules? View Post
coincidently I heard that Joseph of Arimathia [a town that never existed] means 'good disciple' but can someone demonstrate the how this meaning comes about.
A meaning of good disciple town is, to put it kindly, a stretch and a half. May I suggest you peruse an IIDB thread from not all that long ago? The post I am linking to starts the discussion of this claim, which continues nearly to the end of the thread (about a page and a half later) and includes (A) a brief foray by R. Carrier himself and (B) a brief agreement between J. Gibson and spin against Carrier.

Ben.
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Old 06-30-2008, 11:15 AM   #14
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So did anyone use the name and pronunciationg "Jesus" to call that mans name? Or was it "Yeshua"?

I think that it is signifigant.

My name is Lee. No matter where I go, it is correct to call me "Lee".


If there were some other language that was difficult to translate my written name into, my actual name would still be "Lee".
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Old 06-30-2008, 12:17 PM   #15
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Take a name as simple as John and you get has 85 variant forms: Anno, Ean, Eian, Eion, Euan, Evan, Ewan, Ewen, Gian, Giannes, Gianni, Giannis, Giannos, Giovanni, Hannes, Hanno, Hans, Hanschen, Hansel, Hansl, Iain, Ian, Ioannes, Ioannis, Ivan, Ivann, Iwan, Jack, Jackie, Jacky, Jan, Jancsi, Janek, Janko, Janne, Janos, Jean, Heanno, Jeannot, Jehan, Jenkin, Jenkins, Jens, Jian, Jianni, Joannes, Joao, Jock, Jocko, Johan, Johanan, Johann, Johannes, John-Carlo, John-Michael, Johnn, Johon, Johnie, Johnnie, Johnny, John-Patrick, John-Paul, Jon, Jona, Jonnie, Jovan, Jovanney, Jovanney, Jovanni, Jovonni, Juan, Juanito, Juwan, Sean, Seann, Shane, Shaughn, Shaun, Shawn, Vanek, Vanko, Vanya, Yanni, Yanno and Zane.

So I don't think my mate Shaun would want to be called Johnny but when I was in Italy the newsreaders insisted on calling prince Charles; Carlos.

apparently Jesus = Yeshua had the 'a' ending dropped like the London dialect habit of dropping endings. Alright Yes-hoo!
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Old 06-30-2008, 05:58 PM   #16
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Jesus is just the Greek form of Joshua. It is used in the Septuagint wherever Joshua is used in the Hebrew Scriptures, and not as a nomina sacra.
Where explicitly is the name of Jesus (as a full name) used and not as a nomina sacra (abbreviated format) before the fourth century? Which text toto and which date?


And secondly, where does the healer (with the same abbreviated "nomina sacra") fit in to the puzzle?

Best wishes,



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Old 06-30-2008, 06:41 PM   #17
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I don't think that there are early manuscripts of the Septuagint, but it does contain Jesus for the Hebrew Joshua. (See this online version of the book of Joshua.) I do not think that nomina sacra were ever used in the Septuagint for the name of Joshua. Have you looked at the LXX?
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Old 06-30-2008, 10:10 PM   #18
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Originally Posted by Toto View Post
I don't think that there are early manuscripts of the Septuagint, but it does contain Jesus for the Hebrew Joshua. (See this online version of the book of Joshua.) I do not think that nomina sacra were ever used in the Septuagint for the name of Joshua. Have you looked at the LXX?
Yes, my comments however were really directed at the "earliest fragments" and the "earliest documents" of the new testament, not the LXX. In these earliest layers of the evidentiary material we are only dealing with the "nomnina sacra". Here are my notes on nomina sacra.. Pull them apart if you wish. My understanding is that the abbreviated "name" (nomina sacra) predates the full name in the chronological record. This page also examined the healer - a term which has the same "nomina sacra" of 2 letters as does "Joshua" and "Jesus". It includes an examination also of the Syriac and Coptic sources.

Here is a fourth century reference worth quoting:

Quote:
Joshua and Jesus - the Marcellus of Ancyra Fragment 4
http://faculty.wlc.edu/thompson/four...s%20Fragments/


The Greek word “Jesus” is used in the Old Testament
to translate the (sacred) name Joshua, and in the
New Testament for Jesus of Nazareth.

Marcellus of Ancyra Fragment 4

Fragment number Klost. 1 -- Rettb. 1 -- Vinz. 4
Source Eusebius, Against Marcellus 1.2;
GCS: Eusebius vol. 4 (3rd ed.), pp. 9-10.
Modern edition M. Vinzent, Markell von Ankyra:
Die Fragmente (Leiden, 1997).

Translator's Notes:

The Greek word “Jesus” is used
in the Old Testament
to translate the name Joshua,
and in the New Testament
for Jesus of Nazareth.

Marcellus declares the name Jesus
to be the greatest name upon the earth.
To prove this, he quotes the angel’s
statement to Mary in Luke as well as
a passage in Zechariah.

The Old Testament hero Joshua was given
the same name as the Savior
because he was a type,
i.e. one foreshadowing a future person,
in this case Jesus who leads true believers
into the heavenly Jerusalem.


Best wishes


Pete
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Old 06-30-2008, 10:23 PM   #19
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I do not think that nomina sacra were ever used in the Septuagint for the name of Joshua. Have you looked at the LXX?
It is my understanding that the nomen sacrum was indeed occasionally used of Joshua in the LXX.

Ben.
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Old 07-01-2008, 12:01 AM   #20
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OK, most of us are quite familiar with Ish 7:14, and the fact that it's fulfilled a couple chapters later, and is about a current situation, not about a future messiah.

Plus, it's clear that 7:14 uses the name "Immanuel", and we never hear about Immanuel Christ, only Jesus Christ. So is there some way that "Immanuel"="Jesus", that is based on evidence and not on apologetics? I'm sure that there is some standard apologetic line (and OK, we can discuss that), but is it just an ad hoc construction, or does it hold water? Or is it just a way that the Gospel writer tried to smooth over an obvious problem, trying to make an OT verse become a prophecy?

I tried some searches on this on this board and didn't find anything, though I'm sure this has been discussed before.

Thanks-

Equinox

It was just a way that the Gospel writer tried to smooth over an obvious problem, "so that the scripture might be fulfilled".

I think some people in those days wanted an end to the old BS so they fulfilled the scripture by adding new BS, thinking that the new BS would be better.
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