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Old 03-26-2011, 10:58 PM   #371
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[But what about John's statement about the disbelievers who would not confess that Jesus actually existed - as "appeared in the flesh". John tells us that the world was full of such people. GDon did not answer this question.
You didn't actually ask a question. You wrote:

"The Gospel of "John" refutes this claim. "John" clearly states that there were people around, in his day even, who refused to confess that Jesus had "appeared in the flesh" - in any other words that Jesus had appeared in history."

I responded that AFAIK the Gospel of John doesn't have that, and you were probably thinking of the letters of John.

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Why dont we believe "John" at face value? Is it too much to believe?
No, it isn't. When 1 John and 2 John were written, some Christians were preaching that Christ hadn't come in the flesh.
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Old 03-26-2011, 11:04 PM   #372
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How can a datum that proves nothing contribute anything to a cumulative case?
Maybe we have a different understanding of the terms "proves" and "cumulative case". AFAIK a datum can contribute towards a cumulative case without it proving anything, if it is a question of proof...
A belief that Jesus existed does NOT contribute any evidence for the existence of Jesus just like the BELIEF that Marcion's Phantom existed does NOT contribute any actual evidence for the PHANTOM'S existence.
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Old 03-26-2011, 11:30 PM   #373
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What raises it above zero?
1) wishful thinking
2) cultural influences
3) garden variety indoctrination
4) probably a bunch of other silly shit
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Old 03-26-2011, 11:41 PM   #374
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[But what about John's statement about the disbelievers who would not confess that Jesus actually existed - as "appeared in the flesh". John tells us that the world was full of such people. GDon did not answer this question.
You didn't actually ask a question. You wrote:

"The Gospel of "John" refutes this claim. "John" clearly states that there were people around, in his day even, who refused to confess that Jesus had "appeared in the flesh" - in any other words that Jesus had appeared in history."

I responded that AFAIK the Gospel of John doesn't have that, and you were probably thinking of the letters of John.
Hi GDon,

Thanks for this second response. The penny dropped. I was citing the "Gospel of John" - not the letters of "John", in error.


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Why dont we believe "John" at face value? Is it too much to believe?
No, it isn't. When 1 John and 2 John were written, some Christians were preaching that Christ hadn't come in the flesh.
OK.

Thanks for the explanation and the clarification. When do you suppose these letters of "John" were written? And would it not suggest that, whatever date one decides to put these letter of John at, then -- if we are to believe them -- there were many disbelievers around at that time?

To what extent were such ancient disbelievers "mythicists"?


Best wishes,


Pete
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Old 03-27-2011, 12:47 AM   #375
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To what extent were such ancient disbelievers "mythicists"?
[T2]2 John 1:6-8 (New International Version, ©2011)

6 And this is love: that we walk in obedience to his commands. As you have heard from the beginning, his command is that you walk in love.

7 I say this because many deceivers, who do not acknowledge Jesus Christ as coming in the flesh, have gone out into the world. Any such person is the deceiver and the antichrist. 8 Watch out that you do not lose what we have worked for, but that you may be rewarded fully.[/T2]

Oh, my, maybe that's the big deal - mythicism can be likened to the 'antichrist' - (and McGrath has missed this one.....). Such a stigma - no wonder why it would be preferable for a leaning towards mythicism academic to stay in the closet. Not just the academic chair being at stake but hoards of baying for blood christian heresy hunters at ones coattails....
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Old 03-27-2011, 01:15 AM   #376
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I do think it interesting that none of the critics of antiquity every made the argument that the man Jesus never existed.
We don't know that. What we know is that no documentation about any such argument has survived to modern times.

Is there anything we know that makes the non-survival of such documentation improbable, given the assumption that it once existed?
This is practically identical to one line of argument I've already read in favor of a God!

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Old 03-27-2011, 01:39 AM   #377
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When do you suppose these letters of "John" were written?
The Earlychristianwritings entry for 1 John includes:

"The terminus ad quem for I John is provided by Polycarp, who presupposes I John 4:2 in Phil 7:1, and by Papias, who used texts from I John according to Eusebius in HE 3.39.17. This places the letter sometime in the first quarter of the second century."

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And would it not suggest that, whatever date one decides to put these letter of John at, then -- if we are to believe them -- there were many disbelievers around at that time?
Yes,

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To what extent were such ancient disbelievers "mythicists"?
To the extent of mythicists who didn't believe that Christ came in the flesh, I suppose. If you mean ahistoricists, then I don't know. I suppose they could have been ahistoricists who believed that Christ didn't come in the flesh,
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Old 03-27-2011, 02:49 AM   #378
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When do you suppose these letters of "John" were written?
The Earlychristianwritings entry for 1 John includes:

"The terminus ad quem for I John is provided by Polycarp, who presupposes I John 4:2 in Phil 7:1, and by Papias, who used texts from I John according to Eusebius in HE 3.39.17. This places the letter sometime in the first quarter of the second century."
What would the Terminus post quem be? Mid first century? And would the same arguments and answers still apply?

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And would it not suggest that, whatever date one decides to put these letter of John at, then -- if we are to believe them -- there were many disbelievers around at that time?
Yes,

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To what extent were such ancient disbelievers "mythicists"?
To the extent of mythicists who didn't believe that Christ came in the flesh, I suppose. If you mean ahistoricists, then I don't know. I suppose they could have been ahistoricists who believed that Christ didn't come in the flesh,
Well answered. I do consider ahistoricists to be a subset of the mythicists.
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Old 03-27-2011, 06:27 AM   #379
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We don't know that. What we know is that no documentation about any such argument has survived to modern times.
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But what about John's statement about the disbelievers who would not confess that Jesus actually existed - as "appeared in the flesh". John tells us that the world was full of such people.
That could be an exception, but historicists will just say that John is talking about docetists, and I don't feel competent to argue the point.
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Old 03-27-2011, 06:45 AM   #380
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How can a datum that proves nothing contribute anything to a cumulative case?
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Maybe we have a different understanding of the terms "proves" and "cumulative case". AFAIK a datum can contribute towards a cumulative case without it proving anything, if it is a question of proof.
If the subject is history, I would not assume we're talking about mathematical-type proof. In this context, a piece of evidence proves something if it just gives you a good reason to believe it.

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And you still have not responded to my question about how, if anybody had denied that the gospels were about a real man, we would know about that denial.
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I don't know how we would know, if it is a question of knowing.
Let me suggest a way. We would know, if we had a document reliably dated to the second century in which the author explicitly stated something along the lines of, "Christians claim that some Jewish preacher called Jesus of Nazareth, who was crucified by Pilate, was actually the Son of God, just because somebody wrote a book saying so. Don't those fools realize that the book is just a work of fiction and there was no such preacher?"
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