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01-04-2013, 06:45 PM | #151 |
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Maryhelena, you have completely garbled what I have said about my position. My "imaginary Q founder" has nothing to do with Paul and the Pillars or the church which he persecuted, either the pre-Pauline phase or the Pauline one. Nor did I say that the Gospel death and rising of Jesus owed nothing to Paul. I said that it could be possible to see the Gospel Jesus' dying and rising dimension as not having to be based on the Pauline celestial sacrifice, but as an allegory of the believer's own fate, but that I still believe that it is more likely the Pauline faith had an influence, and my books put forward that theory.
But you can't even explain your own theories in a way that makes any sense, so it is perhaps no wonder that you can't understand anyone else's. Earl Doherty |
01-04-2013, 06:52 PM | #152 | |
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But why waste it on "aa"? He's a dry well. DCH |
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01-04-2013, 08:08 PM | #153 | |
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And to say that Marcion did not use the Pauline epistles - well, I can just shake my head in disbelief. There are plenty of sources available showing that Marcion had different versions of the epistles: Irenaeus, Tertullian, Clement of Alexandria, Epiphanius, Jerome - to name but a few. I don't really care when they wrote - they are there as evidence nonetheless. The Muratorian fragment mentions that Paul had an epistle To the Alexandrians but it claims that this epistle was "forged in Paul's name to [further] the heresy of Marcion" - so this epistle existed and the Alexandrian connection had to be denied by this later writer. Why? And please, at least try to answer my other questions: 1) The NT Canon would stand on it's own without the Pauline writings, you say, but they were included to historicise the other apostles. But where does Paul in a better way historicise the other apostles than the authors of the gospels did, or the author of Acts? 2) If the epistles were written later than Acts, after 180 CE, then why do they contradict Acts and why do they contradict some of the fundamental beliefs of the Roman Church? 3) Writers later than 180 CE - why would they abstain from mentioning the virgin Mary, John the Baptist, Jesus miracles, the empty tomb, but instead keep silent on all of this, making it possible to claim that Paul's Jesus was entirely spiritual? 4) Since all is invented anyway, as you claim, then why did they not invent such an episode as Paul standing at the empty tomb to get him tied closer to their own beliefs? Had they done it, they would have historicised Jesus but since such an episode is not present despite all of the editing and manipulating, the writings of Paul had to be known among followers of an earlier church and therefore the RC had to abstain from including it. |
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01-04-2013, 08:45 PM | #154 | |
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It was a forgery mill. |
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01-04-2013, 09:21 PM | #155 | ||
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Earl, unless your prepared to withdraw what you said in the post below - you very much need to allow your theories to go as far as they are able. Quote:
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01-04-2013, 10:12 PM | #156 | ||||||||
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Not even the Church knew when the Pauline writers really lived, wrote and died. Quote:
You don't care about the evidence. You don't care that an Apologetic source, Hippolytus, claimed Marcion did NOT use the writings of Paul but those of Empedocles. See "Refutation of All Heresies" 7. You don't care that Ephrem, although supposedly writing AFTER Irenaeus and Tertullian, corroborated Hippolytus that Marcion did NOT use the Pauline writings and also corroborated Justin Martyr claims about Marcion's teachings. You don't care about the historical accuracy of ancient writings. Let me make it very clear that the writings "Against Heresies" attributed to Irenaeus and "Against Marcion" attributed to Tertullian are Massive forgeries and are not historically accurate. Quote:
In the Muratorian Canon it is claimed that the Pauline Epistles were composed AFTER Revelation by John. Justin mentioned Revelation by John but NOT the Pauline writings. Quote:
In the ENTIRE NT Canon ONLY ONE author, Paul, attempted to historicise the Apostles of Jesus. Quote:
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The Jesus story was ALREADY known when Paul was a Persecutor. Churches of the Jesus cult ALREADY existed. The Pauline writings are about the revealed gospel AFTER the RESURRECTION of Jesus. This is what Paul preached "all over" the Roman Empire. 1 Corinthians 15:17 KJV Quote:
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Again, the Pauline writer Attempted to HISTORICISE the Resurrection of Jesus, a most fictitious event. Without Acts of the Apostles and the Pauline writings there would have been a BIG BLACK HOLE in the Canon exactly like the Big Black Hole in the writings of Justin Martyr for the post-ascension Activities of the Disciples and Paul. |
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01-04-2013, 10:14 PM | #157 | |||||
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Yes, big problems for theology with euhemerization ideas...and for those mythicists that would attempt to use reverse euhemerization in the HJ/MJ debate. |
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01-04-2013, 10:53 PM | #158 | ||
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It is not logical at all that Peter/Cephas in the Pauline writings is not the same Peter/Cephas character in gJohn. No Apologetic source of antiquity has denied or argued that Peter/Cephas in the Pauline letters is some other Peter/Cephas not found in the Gospels. Now, Epistula Apostolorum is DATED no earlier than the 4th or 5th century and gurugeorge knows it. Epistula Apostolorum cannot be used as credible evidence for the 2nd century. There is NO--ZERO Provenance for the Epistula Apostolorum. No 2nd century Apologetic writer mentioned it. |
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01-05-2013, 12:06 AM | #159 | ||||
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Do you not perceive that with respect to the field of ancient history the existence of "Saint Paul" is hypothetical. I would have to agree that nearly every single theological student treats this hypothesis as true. Quote:
I could start with the Dutch radicals and the followers of Herman Detering who treat the Pauline writing as 2nd century. However I would point out to you that all these thousands of so-called scholars are graduates from theological colleges and other similar institutions and are not, I repeat NOT, ancient historians. Eduard Meyer was, at least in Germany, the first non-theologian to write a scholarly history of the origins of Christianity, and this happened only in 1921. Are non theologians like myself ( I see myself as an amateur historian) entitled and/or qualified to research the history of Christian origins, and are such people entitled to approach the task with different (and perhaps antithetical) hypotheses than the continuous stream of theology graduates? The evidence is the common ground between theology and ancient history and each discipline makes its own types of hypotheses about this evidence. Where you are essentially content to see the Pauline letters as evidence for the 1st century historical existence of Dear "Saint Paul" I am not so content. Your hypothesis may be correct. But it also may not be correct. Hence these discussions. |
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01-05-2013, 12:36 AM | #160 | |
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