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02-28-2006, 02:07 PM | #21 | |
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http://elvis.rowan.edu/~kilroy/CHRIS...rary/gen02.htm REPLY: Here I owe my previous readers an apology. In previous editions of this article, I argued that there was a reference to the Massacre at Bethlehem in the ASSUMPTION OF MOSES, an apocalyptic work generally dated around 10 AD. I was relying on an English translation. Responding to a letter by a scholarly reader who questioned the accuracy of the translation I was using, I hunted down the Latin version (the only one surviving), and satisfied myself that my critic was right--there is no reason to suppose that the author is talking about the Massacre. I accordingly grant the critic's point: I know of no non-Christian writer who refers to the Massacre. From what I have seen on this thread, I think he may be going to far in the other direction, (might be good to write him and point him to this thread). The issue is quite interesting. However, either way, good thread. On a quick check I did not find anybody else who was making the Assumption/Massacre connection. Shalom, Steven Avery http://groups.yahoo.com/group/Messianic_Apologetic |
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02-28-2006, 03:39 PM | #22 | ||
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Thanks, praxeus! When I re-read this thread yesterday, I didn't re-read the website I got this from.
Do you know the exact words from the Latin version? If not and if you are going to write him, maybe you could ask him for the Latin text? I must say I really respect that James Kiefer acknowledged this and changed his website. I still don't agree with his conclusion though, which is the following: Quote:
He goes on to say that the Matthew account indeed looks like a myth, but that other events that are historical do so as well. I think some of his examples for such events are not very convincing though, like this one: Quote:
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03-01-2006, 07:10 AM | #23 | ||
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However, if you contend that they also leveraged some early verion of the Assumption of Moses, then I will go along with that too. Jake |
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03-01-2006, 08:26 AM | #24 |
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Yes, it might have been an inspiration for the author of Matthew (as well as even the Assumption might have been an inspiration for him, should he have known that text, which is not clear), but who knows for sure why he wrote it? After such a long time we can only speculate. And because in Josephus' Wars there is no mention of a specific massacre of the infants, but only of the murder of many people, including many different groups of people, one of them infants, this is very speculative IMO.
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03-01-2006, 08:27 AM | #25 | |||
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I agree that James handled it well, and will defer on the whole 10% massacre and probability analysis. Unusual things happen all the time, as we well know, and probabilistic post facto analysis is fraught with peril, whether done from a Christian or skeptic or whatever angle. To me Matthew's testimony fits the situation well, and most other research is peripheral. Quote:
With so many possibile similarities, you can come up with something. Have you watched the threads here ? Shalom, Steven Avery http://groups.yahoo.com/group/Messianic_Apologetic |
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03-01-2006, 08:56 AM | #26 | |
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In Wars 1:18, 2, it is the same Herod specifically stated to show no mercy to infants. That is as close to a match you are going to find in any "history". Now, you are saying, the match is not close enough. One can always say that. But it is a much closer match than the free association "prophecy" (Jer. 31:15) that Matthew attributes it to in 2:18. So the methods of Matthew become clear. He has already associated the birth of baby Jesus with Herod. He finds an account in Joesphus where this same Herod is associated with the slaughter of children. A little free association with the OT (Hey, here is something about somebodies children being killed, close enough!), an invented prophecy, and Shazam, a new epsiode is invented for the Life of Christ. Jake |
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03-01-2006, 12:08 PM | #27 | |
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Matthew's portrait of Herod is based on known facts about the man, but the slaughter of the innocents is a fiction. |
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