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Old 02-28-2006, 02:07 PM   #21
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Originally Posted by Seeker2000
I just read a text from an apologist about the Massacre of the Innocents mentioned in the Gospel of Matthew.
To the argument that no one at all, other than Matthew, records the Massacre, he replies:
Link: http://elvis.rowan.edu/~kilroy/CHRIS.../infancy2.html
It should be pointed out that James Kiefer changed his view on this after checking the Latin text

http://elvis.rowan.edu/~kilroy/CHRIS...rary/gen02.htm
REPLY: Here I owe my previous readers an apology. In previous editions of this article, I argued that there was a reference to the Massacre at Bethlehem in the ASSUMPTION OF MOSES, an apocalyptic work generally dated around 10 AD. I was relying on an English translation. Responding to a letter by a scholarly reader who questioned the accuracy of the translation I was using, I hunted down the Latin version (the only one surviving), and satisfied myself that my critic was right--there is no reason to suppose that the author is talking about the Massacre. I accordingly grant the critic's point: I know of no non-Christian writer who refers to the Massacre.


From what I have seen on this thread, I think he may be going to far in the other direction, (might be good to write him and point him to this thread). The issue is quite interesting. However, either way, good thread.

On a quick check I did not find anybody else who was making the Assumption/Massacre connection.

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Old 02-28-2006, 03:39 PM   #22
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Thanks, praxeus! When I re-read this thread yesterday, I didn't re-read the website I got this from.

Do you know the exact words from the Latin version? If not and if you are going to write him, maybe you could ask him for the Latin text?

I must say I really respect that James Kiefer acknowledged this and changed his website. I still don't agree with his conclusion though, which is the following:

Quote:
CONCLUSION: I remind the reader of other aspects of Matthew's account that we have already discussed. For reasons given above, I maintain that, even if we did not have the testimony of Matthew, or of any Christian writer, there would still be probable grounds for supposing (1) that there was a census in Herod's kingdom in 7 BC or thereabouts; and (2) that the census would draw large numbers of families who claimed Davidic descent to Bethlehem; and (3) that astrological events would encourage the belief that the Messiah would be born that year; and (4) that Herod would see every male child born in Bethelem that year as a potential focus for a movement to overthrow him; and (5) that it would be consistent with his actions whenever he suspected a potential rival, no matter how slim the evidence, to order an assassination. I conclude that, even if we did not have the testimony of Matthew, it would be reasonable for a historian to estimate a probability of ten per cent or higher that Herod ordered the killing of all the male children in Bethlehem in 7 BC or thereabouts. When Matthew tells us that he did just that, I have no problem believing him.
I really think it is farfetched to think that such an event would have been that likely, having a ten percent chance. Of course it's difficult to express such estimations in exact numbers, but I would consider this very unlikely at least. Even with Matthew's testimony I still consider it very unlikely.

He goes on to say that the Matthew account indeed looks like a myth, but that other events that are historical do so as well. I think some of his examples for such events are not very convincing though, like this one:

Quote:
EXAMPLE 3: A historian centuries hence, finding in old documents written by Englishmen a few fragmentary references to World War Two, might suppose it to be a myth about the struggle between good and evil. Not merely because the English cause was portrayed as completely just and the Nazi cause as completely unjust, but because of the names of the leaders. On the one side, "Hitler," from the same root as "heathen," and on the other, "Churchill," clearly denoting a citadel of faith, and "King George," obviously referring to Saint George, the mythical dragon slayer who is also a symbol of England. That King George is said to be of German ancestry is doubtless another symbol. The documents might refer to another leader of the Allied cause, one Roosevelt, whose name signifies a field of roses, clearly meaning the Elysian Fields, or Heaven. And yet the name, like King George, is obviously of Germanic origin. What this means is not perhaps quite clear, but it must express something profound about the poet's insights into the relation of good and evil. And so on, and so on. But in fact all these names are historical.
This example sounds rather constructed and artificial to me. Many names have a religious meaning or a connection to one of the many saints that exist. Also, while Churchill and Saint George sound like references to Christianity, the Elysian Fields are part of Greek mythology. I don't even know if the name Roosevelt really has it's origin there. Also, the name Roosevelt is of Dutch origin, not of German (although there is a relationship between those two languages). I also doubt that Hitler has the same root as the word "heathen". Does anyone know where the name Hitler comes from?
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Old 03-01-2006, 07:10 AM   #23
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Quote:
Originally Posted by jakejonesiv
I have noted here that Herod was accused being responsibile for the slaughter of innocents in Josephus Wars, only the event happened at the beginning of his career rather than the end.
I don't really think that this event could be considered the massacre of the innocents. Josephus points out Herod's cruelty in general and names several atrocities he has done. In fact in this quote Josephus is stating that Herod killed everyone and not only the infants. No special significance is given to the infants here.
The gospel compilers frequently took events in Josephus as a starting point to spin their fanciful tales.

However, if you contend that they also leveraged some early verion of the Assumption of Moses, then I will go along with that too.

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Old 03-01-2006, 08:26 AM   #24
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Yes, it might have been an inspiration for the author of Matthew (as well as even the Assumption might have been an inspiration for him, should he have known that text, which is not clear), but who knows for sure why he wrote it? After such a long time we can only speculate. And because in Josephus' Wars there is no mention of a specific massacre of the infants, but only of the murder of many people, including many different groups of people, one of them infants, this is very speculative IMO.
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Old 03-01-2006, 08:27 AM   #25
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Thanks, praxeus!
Most welcome.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Seeker2000
Do you know the exact words from the Latin version? If not and if you are going to write him, maybe you could ask him for the Latin text?
On Latin I tend to defer to Roger, Andrew, Stephen et al, the researchers par excellence. I had a little trouble finding a contact addy on the first pass, and got distracted with puter problems.

I agree that James handled it well, and will defer on the whole 10% massacre and probability analysis. Unusual things happen all the time, as we well know, and probabilistic post facto analysis is fraught with peril, whether done from a Christian or skeptic or whatever angle. To me Matthew's testimony fits the situation well, and most other research is peripheral.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Seeker2000
some of his examples for such events are not very convincing though...sounds rather constructed and artificial ....Churchill and Saint George sound like references to Christianity, the Elysian Fields are part of Greek mythology. ...
Kiefer is showing how common the unusual is... how difficult it is to try to spin theories of a manufactured history based on seeming analogies and similarities and unusual confluences. He is making a good point about historicity, and it also applies to a lot of the skeptic/mythicist alternate theories spun here. It is easy to come to a hasty and ill-found conclusion by parsing a name or location or comparing with some other event or writing that is really not directly related.

With so many possibile similarities, you can come up with something. Have you watched the threads here ?

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Old 03-01-2006, 08:56 AM   #26
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Seeker2000
I don't really think that this event could be considered the massacre of the innocents. Josephus points out Herod's cruelty in general and names several atrocities he has done. In fact in this quote Josephus is stating that Herod killed everyone and not only the infants. No special significance is given to the infants here.
We will have to disagree on this one. There is absolutely no record of the "slaughter of the innocents" outside of Matt. 2:16-18.

In Wars 1:18, 2, it is the same Herod specifically stated to show no mercy to infants. That is as close to a match you are going to find in any "history".

Now, you are saying, the match is not close enough. One can always say that. But it is a much closer match than the free association "prophecy" (Jer. 31:15) that Matthew attributes it to in 2:18.

So the methods of Matthew become clear. He has already associated the birth of baby Jesus with Herod. He finds an account in Joesphus where this same Herod is associated with the slaughter of children. A little free association with the OT (Hey, here is something about somebodies children being killed, close enough!), an invented prophecy, and Shazam, a new epsiode is invented for the Life of Christ.

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Old 03-01-2006, 12:08 PM   #27
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Seeker2000
I don't really think that this event could be considered the massacre of the innocents. Josephus points out Herod's cruelty in general and names several atrocities he has done. In fact in this quote Josephus is stating that Herod killed everyone and not only the infants. No special significance is given to the infants here.
Josephus in "Antiquities" books 14 to 17, has a great deal to say about Herod's career, and has a great deal of material about Herod's latter days. Josephus aim in these books is to paint Herod as a tyrant. It seems highly unlikely that Josephus would have overlooked something as iniquitious as the slaughter of innocent children in and around Bethlehem. IMO, this story was created by Matthew. Matthew portrays Jesus as the new Moses, ("out of Egypt I have called my son"), and so has the Holy Family sojourn in Egypt to escape Herod's clutches. The slaughter of the innocents would be a Matthean fiction based on Pharoah's order to the midwives to kill all the Israelite new born males (see Exodus 1:15 to 22).

Matthew's portrait of Herod is based on known facts about the man, but the slaughter of the innocents is a fiction.
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