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Old 11-15-2007, 01:42 AM   #171
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How can you tell if a work is satire? Features, spin, features.
I used the Satyricon as an example of an ancient text that was not transparent in its significance. It's not a measure for you to deal with Matthew.
Genre is genre.

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If by "Matthew" are you referring to a writer? If so are you assuming a single writer? If so, why? If not, why might you assume uniformity of purpose?
1. No, I was referring to the work itself. I already pointed out to you that I do this. I did it with Josephus. By Matthew, assume for now I'm referring to the gospel of Matthew.

2. Is there any evidence of multiple hands? If not, then there's no reason to assume that there were multiple hands.

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I don't set out to read them, so you have no basis for the claim. I have no problems with the notions of oral cultures and traditions, but you merely have a text.
What comes before a text in an oral culture?

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(So you do assume uniformity. Now I do need a reason, as I have seen indications that that might not be the case. One example I gave was the omission of the Marcan nazarhnos references only to later include mention of nazwraios. This may be the one writer at two different occasions, but it doesn't seem likely to me.)
You'll have to be more explicit, and present your case elsewhere. I've found thematic unity within Matthew, from the first narrative to the last words.

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While there is an obvious Samson overtone at the end of the birth narrative, ie the reference to Nazara (error from Narizite), and the name is a direct allusion to Joshua, I can't see any reference in the birth narrative to Moses.
No? Does the slaughter of the infants and the flight to Egypt conjure up any stories that may occur in Exodus?

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At the same time, there is sufficient overlap between the Matthean and Lucan birth stories to know that they depended on earlier tradition, which may have developed sufficiently between the time of its inception and the time their writers received the divergent traditions for them to have been substantial narratives in themselves, but we (including you) have no way of knowing the details. That's a problem with traditions: their origins are often totally obscured from us. So I think you are left with guessing about traditions, in this case a birth narrative that you want to read in a particular way that the text seems not to give you sufficient back up for.
Yes, I do not know if there was a divergent tradition. But John is unaware of such traditions, and it isn't in our earliest sources of Q and the later Mark. In fact, being absent in the prior only leaves us with a matter of decades given the reasonable amount of time between the appearance of Mark and the appearance of Matthew. I would personally estimate no more than 2 decades time. While that's enough time for some tradition to develop, Matthew's narratives doesn't have any of the other characteristics of tradition borrowing present in his use of Mark or Q. It appears to be wholly his creation, though the big themes such as Joseph, Mary, and virgin birth are his taking. The virgin birth and the name Joseph do not lend themselves easily to Matthew's theme.

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It seems to me that you've guessed about the purpose of the birth narrative (or you've derived it from a source that has), especially as it is possible that the writer has received a relatively developed version from his local tradition.
You're obfuscating here. Why are you separating a writer from his community?
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Old 11-15-2007, 01:52 AM   #172
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Once I saw that the argument was for a constructed figure, it didn't seem reasonable to me. The point about Ebion is that it is reasonable and did happen. I've added the wife of Pilate as well. Unheard of in Mark, no room in Matthew, but eked into existence for Luke. She later goes on to bigger and better things as a saint in the orthodox church. Once they enter tradition they somehow tend to grow. (Chinese whispers and all that.)
Yes, but you've shown no way of distinguishing between the ahistorical characters that entered tradition and have grown and those that were historical and entered into the tradition and grown.

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Plato's material was written before the time of the gnostics.
Yes. You're on to something there. Take it a bit further.

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Still sophistry. Oh, no, wait. You just don't get it! Your task is to show that James (of the pillars) was a believer in Jesus. You can't assume you know what James's religious views were from later literature. Paul in Galatians doesn't help you.
What was Paul's association with James? Or Cephas with Paul and with James? What they the Pillars of? I think you've a too narrow definition of Christian.

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So Paul criticizes Cephas. That's par for the course. How does that help y ou?
Paul associates with Cephas. Cephas accepts Paul, but later returns to James. There was some success there. It doesn't take a genius to figure out what's going on.

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Rubbish. You don't know what the religious beliefs (gospel) of the Jerusalem messianists was.
Apparently you do, if you dare to call them the Jerusalem messianists?

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Gal 1:11.
Yep. There's not a single mention here where Paul says that he doesn't need anything else. You've assumed that.

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Prestige and support. But he gets neither.
Prestige and support for what?

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It is an explanation that you can see in practice in the gospel tradition.
I'm aware of what it is. I was asking for evidence for it. You provided none.

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He was one. It was a family that had representatives in the second and third centuries. There has been a strong argument for the Satyricon to have been written in the late second century (Marmorale).
Titus Petronius was family? No. That's a logical impossibility. Perhaps you had meant to ask: Who were the Titi Petronii? The question deserves some ridicule, since praenomina aren't always passed down. Quintus Tullius Cicero was the son of Marcus Tullius Cicero and the brother of Marcus Tullius Cicero.
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Old 11-15-2007, 03:10 AM   #173
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The objectionable practice is to say "We can, however, take the texts at face value, like all historians do with ancient texts, unless there's evidence to the contrary," and then attempt to reject all evidence to the contrary, to save the texts.

But if "evidence to the contrary" is a very low bar, then we are not that far apart - especially if recognizing the high probability of legend in ancient texts is counted as evidence.

But in that case, why insist that ancient texts must be taken at face value? I still say that you will not find a professional historian from the modern era who claims that all ancient texts must be taken at face value unless there is evidence to the contrary.
I rather agree with SolitaryMan. Rationally we start with all the evidence, and then see what it says. Where the base of data disagrees, then we compose suggestions as to why this happens.

I'm afraid that "recognizing the high probability of legend in ancient texts is ... evidence" sounds a lot like the arrival of prejudice on the scene to me. It isn't evidence. It is a deduction from a (usually unexamined) database. Life is simple if we know in advance that whatever a text says can be disregarded when inconvenient. But surely this is precisely what we are trying NOT to do?

All the best,

Roger Pearse
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Old 11-15-2007, 03:28 AM   #174
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Once I saw that the argument was for a constructed figure, it didn't seem reasonable to me. The point about Ebion is that it is reasonable and did happen. I've added the wife of Pilate as well. Unheard of in Mark, no room in Matthew, but eked into existence for Luke. She later goes on to bigger and better things as a saint in the orthodox church. Once they enter tradition they somehow tend to grow. (Chinese whispers and all that.)
Yes, but you've shown no way of distinguishing between the ahistorical characters that entered tradition and have grown and those that were historical and entered into the tradition and grown.
Fact is, I don't need to. It's not my problem. For anyone who wants to argue historicity they have to find a method. A nice piece of epigraphy works well. An otherwise missing part of an already reconstructed passage of history also does well.

Traditions are trickier in that, once they contain the information, that information has life of its own, whether it is based on a real source or not. So there you are with a christian tradition about Jesus. How do you get out of the bind?

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Yes. You're on to something there. Take it a bit further.
I'm not the one trying to eke out diverse sources.

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What was Paul's association with James? Or Cephas with Paul and with James? What they the Pillars of? I think you've a too narrow definition of Christian.
This was J-D's approach. He eventually tried abandoning Jesus altogether for argument's sake. Are you prepared to do that? You know, the source of christianity but without a Jesus?

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Paul associates with Cephas. Cephas accepts Paul, but later returns to James. There was some success there. It doesn't take a genius to figure out what's going on.
Cephas was slumming and got caught out.

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Apparently you do, if you dare to call them the Jerusalem messianists?
I know that they were non-standard Jews as Paul had given related groups a hard time. The major disturbance in Judaism of the time was messianism.

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Yep. There's not a single mention here where Paul says that he doesn't need anything else. You've assumed that.
? The gospel that he touted was "not of human origin".

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Prestige and support for what?
His new form of messianism.

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Originally Posted by Solitary Man View Post
I'm aware of what it is. I was asking for evidence for it. You provided none.
And I wasn't trying to. It was supplied as a method that would explain in a neutral manner.

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Originally Posted by Solitary Man View Post
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He was one. It was a family that had representatives in the second and third centuries. There has been a strong argument for the Satyricon to have been written in the late second century (Marmorale).
Titus Petronius was family?
Very amusing. You've studied classics. And you've already admitted metonymy.

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Originally Posted by Solitary Man View Post
No. That's a logical impossibility.
You got there all by your lonesome. :wave: Let me shake the limb for you.

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Perhaps you had meant to ask: Who were the Titi Petronii? The question deserves some ridicule, since praenomina aren't always passed down. Quintus Tullius Cicero was the son of Marcus Tullius Cicero and the brother of Marcus Tullius Cicero.
Doh!


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Old 11-15-2007, 08:34 AM   #175
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Fact is, I don't need to. It's not my problem. For anyone who wants to argue historicity they have to find a method. A nice piece of epigraphy works well. An otherwise missing part of an already reconstructed passage of history also does well.
Epigraphy isn't the only answer. I already mentioned you seem to lack an awareness of recent studies on oral cultures and oral tradition. You exclude that as evidence, but I don't see why. You don't give a reason why.

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Traditions are trickier in that, once they contain the information, that information has life of its own, whether it is based on a real source or not. So there you are with a christian tradition about Jesus. How do you get out of the bind?
You look at the sources and determine a trajectory. It's easier to posit a real man named Jesus who was crucified before Passover than it is to posit an imaginary Messiah who doesn't even wholly fit the scripture.

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I'm not the one trying to eke out diverse sources.
Well, if you don't want to follow it through...

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This was J-D's approach. He eventually tried abandoning Jesus altogether for argument's sake. Are you prepared to do that? You know, the source of christianity but without a Jesus?
I didn't keep up with your and J-D's discussion.

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Cephas was slumming and got caught out.
But why was he slumming?

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I know that they were non-standard Jews as Paul had given related groups a hard time. The major disturbance in Judaism of the time was messianism.
So, why is it ok for you to assume that the James group were Jerusalem messianists, but not Christian?

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? The gospel that he touted was "not of human origin".
Right. I can read. There's still nothing that says that he didn't need other sources.

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His new form of messianism.
Now, what makes you think that Paul's messiah differs from James' messiah? Or Cephas' messiah? Or John's messiah?

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And I wasn't trying to. It was supplied as a method that would explain in a neutral manner.
But a method that doesn't have any evidence going for it? I'm sure there's some, but if you don't provide any, it's kind of hard to accept that's what happened, especially since at first you gave it so authoritatively.

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Very amusing. You've studied classics. And you've already admitted metonymy.
I admitted metonymy, but you have had a problem with it, asking me twice for clarification. And mine was limited to the works by an author.

And actually, using a part to represent the whole is properly synecdoche.
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Old 11-15-2007, 01:43 PM   #176
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I used the Satyricon as an example of an ancient text that was not transparent in its significance. It's not a measure for you to deal with Matthew.
Genre is genre.
And it is only one of the indicators that I mentioned to help us get closer to contextualization.

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Originally Posted by Solitary Man View Post
1. No, I was referring to the work itself. I already pointed out to you that I do this. I did it with Josephus. By Matthew, assume for now I'm referring to the gospel of Matthew.
In that case a text is not "able to know" anything.

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2. Is there any evidence of multiple hands? If not, then there's no reason to assume that there were multiple hands.
With uncontextualized texts you should not rule it out. And I gave one indication that it could have multiple authorship.

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Originally Posted by Solitary Man View Post
What comes before a text in an oral culture?
If you have texts then earlier texts.

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Originally Posted by Solitary Man View Post
You'll have to be more explicit, and present your case elsewhere. I've found thematic unity within Matthew, from the first narrative to the last words.
I have argued the matter at length here.

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Originally Posted by Solitary Man View Post
No? Does the slaughter of the infants and the flight to Egypt conjure up any stories that may occur in Exodus?
So not the birth narrative.

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Originally Posted by Solitary Man View Post
Yes, I do not know if there was a divergent tradition. But John is unaware of such traditions, and it isn't in our earliest sources of Q and the later Mark. In fact, being absent in the prior only leaves us with a matter of decades given the reasonable amount of time between the appearance of Mark and the appearance of Matthew.
Do you mean that Mark wasn't written well after the fall of the temple? Then why does it have the overthrow of the temple symbolized by the rending of the curtain?

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Originally Posted by Solitary Man View Post
I would personally estimate no more than 2 decades time.
I see. On what do you base it?

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Originally Posted by Solitary Man View Post
While that's enough time for some tradition to develop, Matthew's narratives doesn't have any of the other characteristics of tradition borrowing present in his use of Mark or Q. It appears to be wholly his creation, though the big themes such as Joseph, Mary, and virgin birth are his taking. The virgin birth and the name Joseph do not lend themselves easily to Matthew's theme.
I remain unconvinced that a writer in a gospel tradition created materials. Obviously the Matthean writer for example didn't invent the genealogy he shaped because it contains at least one error (an omission) which was received by the manipulator of the information.

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It seems to me that you've guessed about the purpose of the birth narrative (or you've derived it from a source that has), especially as it is possible that the writer has received a relatively developed version from his local tradition.
You're obfuscating here. Why are you separating a writer from his community?[/QUOTE]
I don't see how you could arrive at that assessment from what you are commenting on. A writer uses a (living) tradition at a particular time. The tradition is held by the community.

The tradition is open to continuous change -- partly in the retelling under new conditions, partly with the incorporation of external material, as from wandering preachers who passed from community to community.


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Old 11-15-2007, 02:16 PM   #177
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Fact is, I don't need to. It's not my problem. For anyone who wants to argue historicity they have to find a method. A nice piece of epigraphy works well. An otherwise missing part of an already reconstructed passage of history also does well.
Epigraphy isn't the only answer. I already mentioned you seem to lack an awareness of recent studies on oral cultures and oral tradition. You exclude that as evidence, but I don't see why. You don't give a reason why.
I never claimed epigraphy was the only answer. It is an indicative peg. I've already frequently put forward the notion that history works with strong points from hard evidence, epigraphy, archaeology, coins. From there we learn about Caesar and Augustus and all his family (Ara Pacis), chronological relationships between figures (an aqueduct might have an inscription with names its builder and those who then repaired it). You can get a lot of Roman history without touching a literary source. It is with a grid of hard evidence that literary historians get placed into context, writers who supply a wealth of verifiable information. This provides a wider fuller complex of historical information in which other works can be incorporated.

Talking about oral cultures is all well and fine, but you try to do the work of verification of the content of the oral traditions. The sad story is that you can't. This might not be acceptable in a pc world, but that's because the pc world isn't really interested in history. Oral history is as good as the memory of the oldest recorder. It might be fine to do a folk history based on the stories, but it doesn't provide us with a past, just an idealized one.

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You look at the sources and determine a trajectory. It's easier to posit a real man named Jesus who was crucified before Passover than it is to posit an imaginary Messiah who doesn't even wholly fit the scripture.
Once material enters a tradition you have no way to evaluate its trajectory. You need a way to see where it entered the tradition in order to get a trajectory. Once it is in a tradition all the tools of the tradition are available for its use.

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Originally Posted by Solitary Man View Post
Well, if you don't want to follow it through...
If you want to take a substantive position, go for it.

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Originally Posted by Solitary Man View Post
I didn't keep up with your and J-D's discussion.
Well, you won't mind if I repeat myself.

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Originally Posted by Solitary Man View Post
But why was he slumming?
Does the text help you to answer that question? If so, what does it say in your view?

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Originally Posted by Solitary Man View Post
So, why is it ok for you to assume that the James group were Jerusalem messianists, but not Christian?
I'm working on the notion that we cannot assume what they were because Paul doesn't say. We know that they weren't one of the mainstream positions as Paul had left his claimed mainstream position. There must have been something that Paul saw in them, and as Paul was a messianist of sorts and messianism was popular at the time, it seemed like a safe bet. They may have been something else; they may have been christian. Whatever they were, they didn't accept Paul's gospel.

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Right. I can read. There's still nothing that says that he didn't need other sources.
If he says that the gospel he proclaimed was not of human origin nor was he taught it, why do you want to contradict him?

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Now, what makes you think that Paul's messiah differs from James' messiah? Or Cephas' messiah? Or John's messiah?
Can we assume that they weren't? I'm providing a valid alternative reading to the data. There is no reason from Paul's description to read it as you seem to want to.

Chinese whispers:
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But a method that doesn't have any evidence going for it?
I don't need to provide evidence at all. I'm merely heading off accusations based on assumptions of how things happened because people will not allow that we may not know how though they have to have some explanation which usually boils down to fiction or truth. You pick a method that appeals to you and argue for how a particular tradition developed.

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Originally Posted by Solitary Man View Post
I'm sure there's some, but if you don't provide any, it's kind of hard to accept that's what happened, especially since at first you gave it so authoritatively.
Casually.

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Originally Posted by Solitary Man View Post
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Very amusing. You've studied classics. And you've already admitted metonymy.
I admitted metonymy, but you have had a problem with it, asking me twice for clarification. And mine was limited to the works by an author.

And actually, using a part to represent the whole is properly synecdoche.
You haven't got it right yet.


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Old 11-15-2007, 04:27 PM   #178
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In that case a text is not "able to know" anything.
I disagree. To argue otherwise is just playing with semantics.

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If you have texts then earlier texts.
And what comes before those earlier texts? What comes before texts? Don't play dense here, spin.

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So not the birth narrative.
Do you ever give straight answers?

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Do you mean that Mark wasn't written well after the fall of the temple? Then why does it have the overthrow of the temple symbolized by the rending of the curtain?
How in the world were you able to twist my words to get that out of it?

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I see. On what do you base it?
Reasonable time of circulation. We have to have enough time for Mark to circulate around the Mediterranean so that Matthew can use it and allow enough time for Matthew to become popular and circulate so that Luke can use it. By this time we start having attestations.

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I remain unconvinced that a writer in a gospel tradition created materials. Obviously the Matthean writer for example didn't invent the genealogy he shaped because it contains at least one error (an omission) which was received by the manipulator of the information.
You are assuming (which you apparently like to do) that Matthew's error was first an error and secondly that Matthew inherited it.

But no, actually I think that Matthew did inherit the genealogy, or at least some of it.

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Originally Posted by spin View Post
Talking about oral cultures is all well and fine, but you try to do the work of verification of the content of the oral traditions. The sad story is that you can't. This might not be acceptable in a pc world, but that's because the pc world isn't really interested in history. Oral history is as good as the memory of the oldest recorder. It might be fine to do a folk history based on the stories, but it doesn't provide us with a past, just an idealized one.
You need a serious course on oral tradition and collective memory. I'm afraid this statement is 3 decades or more behind the times. It's not "PC", it's basic anthropology.

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Once material enters a tradition you have no way to evaluate its trajectory. You need a way to see where it entered the tradition in order to get a trajectory. Once it is in a tradition all the tools of the tradition are available for its use.
Assumption.

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Does the text help you to answer that question? If so, what does it say in your view?
It does. It says that Cephas and Paul shared a religious affiliation.

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I'm working on the notion that we cannot assume what they were because Paul doesn't say.
Just because Paul doesn't outright say it doesn't mean that it's not inferred.

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We know that they weren't one of the mainstream positions as Paul had left his claimed mainstream position. There must have been something that Paul saw in them, and as Paul was a messianist of sorts and messianism was popular at the time, it seemed like a safe bet. They may have been something else; they may have been christian. Whatever they were, they didn't accept Paul's gospel.
Is that what Paul says?

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If he says that the gospel he proclaimed was not of human origin nor was he taught it, why do you want to contradict him?
Are you done beating that strawman? Would you like to actually read what I wrote for once?

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Can we assume that they weren't? I'm providing a valid alternative reading to the data. There is no reason from Paul's description to read it as you seem to want to.
There is no reason... What a load of crap.

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I don't need to provide evidence at all. I'm merely heading off accusations based on assumptions of how things happened because people will not allow that we may not know how though they have to have some explanation which usually boils down to fiction or truth. You pick a method that appeals to you and argue for how a particular tradition developed.
Bullshit. You can't say that something happened in a certain way and not provide evidence that it happened.
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Old 11-15-2007, 05:40 PM   #179
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In that case a text is not "able to know" anything.
I disagree. To argue otherwise is just playing with semantics.
I'm sorry, this is starting to lose itself as a discussion through dispersal. You said:
"Is Matthew able to know what happened at Jesus' birth?"
You've said that you mean the text by "Matthew" and I said, a text is not "able to know" anything. You can hardly dispute this. A text is not a volitional agent as a writer is. I plainly didn't understand whatever it is you were saying and you haven't tried to clarify. Hence the dispersal. If you have something you wanted to say with the above cited sentence you might like to rephrase it so I'm in a position to understand it.

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And what comes before those earlier texts? What comes before texts? Don't play dense here, spin.
Don't you pretend to be able to divine what you can't.

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Originally Posted by Solitary Man View Post
Do you ever give straight answers?
Straight answers are for reasonable questions. You're wearing your holster low.

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Originally Posted by Solitary Man View Post
How in the world were you able to twist my words to get that out of it?
Answer the questions so we can continue. I'm trying to understand your unstated presuppositions, while providing some ulterior possibility.

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Originally Posted by Solitary Man View Post
Reasonable time of circulation. We have to have enough time for Mark to circulate around the Mediterranean so that Matthew can use it and allow enough time for Matthew to become popular and circulate so that Luke can use it. By this time we start having attestations.
So it's all a bunch of guesses based on assumptions that you have no way of testing. Your Q-less stance is also worth noting.

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Originally Posted by Solitary Man View Post
You are assuming (which you apparently like to do) that Matthew's error was first an error and secondly that Matthew inherited it.
Please propose a less complex explanation for the evidence.

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But no, actually I think that Matthew did inherit the genealogy, or at least some of it.
On what grounds do you base that exactly?

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Originally Posted by Solitary Man View Post
You need a serious course on oral tradition and collective memory. I'm afraid this statement is 3 decades or more behind the times. It's not "PC", it's basic anthropology.
You need to stop pursuing your tangents far enough to lose track.

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Originally Posted by Solitary Man View Post
Assumption.
If you believe so, give me a method of being able to extract backgrounds of tradition elements.

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Originally Posted by Solitary Man View Post
It does. It says that Cephas and Paul shared a religious affiliation.
I have no doubt of that. But do try to define what it is.

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Originally Posted by Solitary Man View Post
Just because Paul doesn't outright say it doesn't mean that it's not inferred.
Just supply the grounds from the text to make the inference.

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Originally Posted by Solitary Man View Post
Is that what Paul says?
That's how I understand Paul saying that he got nothing from them. Paul is presenting the events to his Galatians, so we have to be careful not to accept his presentation on face value. That requires analysis of what he actually says and not what we bring to the text. This leads to reading for intent and how he is shaping the events to represent himself as well as possible.

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Originally Posted by Solitary Man View Post
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Originally Posted by Solitary Man
There's still nothing that says that he didn't need other sources.
If he says that the gospel he proclaimed was not of human origin nor was he taught it, why do you want to contradict him?
Are you done beating that strawman? Would you like to actually read what I wrote for once?
Your comment doesn't seem to be helpful or related to what you are supposed to be commenting on. When he specifically says that his stuff was not from other people, what the fuck are you on about?

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Originally Posted by Solitary Man View Post
There is no reason... What a load of crap.
What a crap response. Let's try and reconstruct the argument as it meanders:
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You:
Why else would he be trying to get to the Pillars?

Me:
Prestige and support. But he gets neither.

You:
Prestige and support for what?

Me:
His new form of messianism.

You:
Now, what makes you think that Paul's messiah differs from James' messiah? Or Cephas' messiah? Or John's messiah?

Me:
Can we assume that they weren't? I'm providing a valid alternative reading to the data. There is no reason from Paul's description to read it as you seem to want to.

You:
There is no reason... What a load of crap.
You seem to be complaining about a casual phrase and avoiding the general content. All you need do is to show that I'm not correct from the text.

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Originally Posted by Solitary Man View Post
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I don't need to provide evidence at all. I'm merely heading off accusations based on assumptions of how things happened because people will not allow that we may not know how though they have to have some explanation which usually boils down to fiction or truth. You pick a method that appeals to you and argue for how a particular tradition developed.
Bullshit. You can't say that something happened in a certain way and not provide evidence that it happened.
Please read what I said again. I don't want to have to deal with the usual leading reasons for why something happened, so I suggest a method of how it could have happened -- in what I see as the most neutral way. I've already explained why I said it. After all you asked the question: "And just where do you think that the extra-synoptic stuff came from?" This was asked in response to my:
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You can't assume independent strands of tradition when you cannot date works. It's obvious that the synoptics are functionally the one major tradition with untestable add-ins. The relationship between John and the synoptics may be unclear but they are both quite a bit later than Paul. THe other "strands" are not on the historical playing field.
This was yet another tangent on your part that has taken you away from the discussion.

Now please, answer your own question "And just where do you think that the extra-synoptic stuff came from?" with a more useful response than the one I gave.


spin
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Old 11-15-2007, 08:30 PM   #180
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I agree with your first sentence. Why don't you pick a topic and work on this one at a time. I don't like this nitpicking one line at a time.
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