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Old 06-03-2008, 07:41 AM   #71
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Price has shown that there is no need to propose Q at all. All you have to do is recognize that Luke was based on Mark, that Matthew was based on Mark and Luke, and that John was based on the other three.
Would that be RG Price or Robert M Price?

By chance can you provide a link for this article?

Thanks
RM. I'm not aware of an online source, but I can dig probably dig it up later at home and provide a book reference. It was either in "Deconstructing Jesus" or "The Incredible Shrinking Son of Man". I always get them confused.
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Old 06-03-2008, 07:43 AM   #72
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Would that be RG Price or Robert M Price?

By chance can you provide a link for this article?

Thanks
RM. I'm not aware of an online source, but I can dig probably dig it up later at home and provide a book reference. It was either in "Deconstructing Jesus" or "The Incredible Shrinking Son of Man". I always get them confused.
It doesn't matter where it comes from, it's Griesbach theory to begin with. He didn't originate the theory. And it's so far out of touch with current scholarship to not even be looked at seriously. I don't know many scholars who look at Griesbach at all anymore. A few here or there. The two main theories are the 2 Source and the Farrer-Goulder-Goodacre theory.
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Old 06-03-2008, 07:48 AM   #73
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Would that be RG Price or Robert M Price?

By chance can you provide a link for this article?

Thanks
RM. I'm not aware of an online source, but I can dig probably dig it up later at home and provide a book reference. It was either in "Deconstructing Jesus" or "The Incredible Shrinking Son of Man". I always get them confused.

Thanks. If you are interested, Mark Goodacre makes basically the same claim. http://ntgateway.com/Q/
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Old 06-03-2008, 07:49 AM   #74
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What i think is emerging from my orignal question is that the orthodox view of the historical Jesus is percieved to be a better explaination not because the 'facts' are particularly supportive but because the explainations for a MJ are both wide ranging, prone to attract more colourful theories and less plausable. What would be needed to level the playing field is a kind of universal MJ hypothisis that was as simple [or rather straight forward, and hence a reason perhaps for the solar-god theories popularity] as the historical one.
HJ has just as many fanciful disparate speculations associated with it as does MJ. It isn't any simpler, because you still have to explain how Jesus was elevated to such legendary status in the very first historical records of him. The degree of legendary status exceeds even that of the emperors.

The simplest explanation I've seen is FJ (fictional jesus), which amounts to Jesus as originally a character in a book/play of intentional fiction.
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Old 06-03-2008, 07:53 AM   #75
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He didn't originate the theory. And it's so far out of touch with current scholarship to not even be looked at seriously.
Markan priority is out of touch with current scholarship!? Based on what?
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Old 06-03-2008, 08:39 AM   #76
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...and, if we accept the Adam parallel (who really was not in "the form of" but in the "image of" God, but I am ok with it ) then
What significant difference do you see between the two?

tselem: image, likeness (of resemblance)

dĕmuwth: likeness, similitude
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Old 06-03-2008, 09:09 AM   #77
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The earliest Christians, even Paul, could have believed in a Jesus man living on earth and that Jesus could still have been a myth.
Sure. But I was getting at the more common "Doherty" style MJ, which is partly (and usually) supported by Paul's omission of the supposedly historical elements that were later included in the gospels.

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I think we do have enough info to figure out that Jesus was never real.
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But, clearly there are myths about humans that never existed.
Agreed. I don't think a "real" seminal figure is a necessary antecedent to a mythical figure, but I do think one existed in this case. What I don't buy is the assumption, even among skeptics, that the life of this figure was the basis of the gospels. Rather, I think we know virtually nothing of the life of Jesus. All we have is the rudimentary description found in Paul's epistles, e.g., a Jewish man who was crucified.

I think the unjust crucifixion of this holy man gave motion to the notion that he was divine. Cults sprang up around this belief, one led by Peter and the other led by Paul, and the rest is, er, history.

IOW, the Jesus worshipped by Paul may have existed, but the gospels were not in any way biographical, but rather were designed to foster the belief that Jesus' life - and death - was the fulfillment of prophesy. So they were primarily based on passages in the Septuagint, and secondarily derived from messianic folklore, Greek myths and possibly other sources, including Greek myths.

So I have split the baby Jesus thusly: there was a historical Jesus who was crucified in Jerusalem. He was a drifter; virtually nothing was known of his life. After his death, the belief arose that he was divine, a messiah whose counsel could be sought through prayer. This, IMO, is the Jesus worshipped by Paul's early churches. Later he was mythicized by the gospel writers, who invented his life and works from the raw materials supplied by older writings, mainly the Hebrew Bible. Mark, as the first gospel author, gets most of the credit for this Jesus, who is worshipped by millions of Christians today.

In a sense I'm agreeing with the MJ position, insofar as I acknowledge that the Jesus of the Gospels never existed.

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Old 06-03-2008, 09:55 AM   #78
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What I don't buy is the assumption, even among skeptics, that the life of this figure was the basis of the gospels. Rather, I think we know virtually nothing of the life of Jesus. All we have is the rudimentary description found in Paul's epistles, e.g., a Jewish man who was crucified.
It isn't a valid historical approach to simply remove the fantastic from a story completely filled with legend/myth/fiction and assume what's left over represents history. Remove the word 'virtually', and you may start to understand why some of us dispense with the HJ assumption altogether.
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Old 06-03-2008, 10:01 AM   #79
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do you mean by (b) that the pre-existence of Christ can be dispensed with ?
It depends on what you mean by "pre-existence". If you mean that Jesus existed ontologically before his birth, then yes it can -- and should -- be dispensed with, since even if Paul is asserting the "pre-existence" of Christ Jesus in Phil. 2, this is not what he is claiming, just as the author of T. Moses is not asserting that Moses existed as a person before he was he was born when that author attributes "pre-existence" to Moses.

I take it you have not done much -- if any -- work in studies such as those by Jimmy Dunn and Hammerton-Kelly and others on what those who in the intertestamentary period were actually "up to" when they attributed "pre-existence" to some one or some thing?


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And if so, how is the kenosis of Phl 2:7 to be understood ? If Christ had no pre-x status, what was he emptying himself of in accepting incarnation and human form ?
Have a look at what was set out here out some time ago on this point here.

And please have a look at Jimmy Dunn's discussion of Phil. 2 in his Christology in the Making (or via: amazon.co.uk).


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Old 06-03-2008, 11:11 AM   #80
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What i think is emerging from my original question is that the orthodox view of the historical Jesus is perceived to be a better explanation not because the 'facts' are particularly supportive but because the explanations for a MJ are both wide ranging, prone to attract more colourful theories and less plausible. What would be needed to level the playing field is a kind of universal MJ hypothesis that was as simple [or rather straight forward, and hence a reason perhaps for the solar-god theories popularity] as the historical one.
HJ has just as many fanciful disparate speculations associated with it as does MJ. It isn't any simpler, because you still have to explain how Jesus was elevated to such legendary status in the very first historical records of him. The degree of legendary status exceeds even that of the emperors.

The simplest explanation I've seen is FJ (fictional Jesus), which amounts to Jesus as originally a character in a book/play of intentional fiction.

The Hj theory is simple, that has been the success whether for the catholic church or Dan Brown. Some guy got nailed up for the revolutionary idea that we should be nice to each other. OK there is a lot more to it but a historical character is simple. people are attracted to the idea that Laozte [sp?] Pythagoras, Buddha, king Arthur, Homer were real people. MJ theories are far more complex.

Jesus of the book/play cashed in on idea that was fashionable, hence the relative rapid growth of the movement unconnected to the gospels and in fact Luke's preface suggests his patron was hungry for any information. The apocalyptic cult seems [my opinion] to have had as many adherents from across the Greco-Roman world as the current wave of influential doom merchants. Doom seems to flip in and out of fashion over the last 2000 years with predictable inevitability so were there doom merchants prior to 0 c.e. or do we only have the Christians to blame for this trend?

I find Mark's character more interesting the more I learn. contradictory, complex and like all good characters he seems to be based on people the author has experience of. I caught some of another thread which pointed out that the Jews for their sins did not deserve a cosmic Christ on a cloud but one on a donkey. Jesus gets a donkey to make the point but then proclaims that it was a piss take and in fact the messiah will return on a cloud.
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