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|  07-12-2005, 05:55 AM | #11 | |
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|  07-12-2005, 06:00 AM | #12 | |
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			Herod has had 2000 years of bad press. It's only normal that you have to question the sources about him. There's basically nothing of his propaganda left to compare with. Herod, as a loser in history, gets crap from everyone. People in those times did ruthless things. It's not uncommon for people to kill lots of enemies. Alexander Jannaeus killed loads of Pharisees. So what? We only really think of Herod and the fictitious massacre of the innocents -- and innocents here means babies. What has the following to do with babies? Quote: 
 spin | |
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|  07-12-2005, 11:30 AM | #13 | |
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 The apologist argues that this could be a reference to the story of the Pharaoh killing all the male children of the Hebrews, because he had been warned by an oracle that a Hebrew boy will lead to his downfall. Do you know what this could be referring to? | |
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|  07-12-2005, 12:19 PM | #14 | |
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 Does anyone know the actual Latin words that are being translated as "executed judgements" or have a link to the Latin online? For that matter, is there a Hebrew text? | |
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|  07-12-2005, 12:36 PM | #15 | 
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			Agree with spin - there's nothing there that suggests the slaughter of young children.
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|  02-28-2006, 09:37 AM | #16 | ||
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			I read about Herod in a different context yesterday and then remembered this thread. I re-read it and have some additional thoughts about it, as follows: Quote: 
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 From: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Assumption_of_Moses So it seems that there is no Hebrew text available. About the question what could be meant by "as the Egyptians executed upon them": Well, I think this could perhaps simply refer to the Exodus story in general. It is said that judgments will be imposed upon them for thirty-four years, which is the duration of Herod's reign. So it rather sounds like the author could be talking about a period of time and not about single events. So maybe he could just refer to the suppression of the Jews in Egypt in general? | ||
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|  02-28-2006, 09:54 AM | #17 | 
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			"And he shall ..." is a future tense, as if The Assumption of Moses was claiming prophecies, but your friend, whilst not claiming supernatural inspiration for it, does think that it's a (within 10 years - in his opinion) reference to an event that had already passed. So, even if he's right, he would also be claiming/pointing out that 'in those days' people used to write 'prophetic' books after the events they were claiming to be predicting. And this helps his argument how? | 
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|  02-28-2006, 01:32 PM | #19 | |
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|  02-28-2006, 01:36 PM | #20 | |
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