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06-18-2007, 02:14 PM | #31 | |
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06-18-2007, 02:20 PM | #32 |
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06-18-2007, 02:26 PM | #33 |
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Seconded. This place probably is the [b]worst[/i] place to get opinions from Christians or Jews. While there are Christians and Jews here, they're hardly the representative group that you're (presumably) looking for.
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06-18-2007, 02:31 PM | #34 | ||||
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There is no way to know for sure whether some gods should be seen as false, or simply subordinate to Yahweh. But put yourself in the shoes of the writers. Say you're a monotheist arguing that other gods don't exist. How would you express that? Now suppose you're a henotheist trying to convince some polytheists that other gods are subordinate to Yahweh. How would you express that? The cited passages are what you would expect for the latter, but require some mental gymnastics to fit the first one. As to the first question, several possibilities come to mind. Maybe the redactors were trying to maintain as much continuity as possible with prior traditions. Think about the way Christian evangelists converted Europeans and Native Americans, by teaching Christianity as an alternative interpretation of the native religion, with one of their gods equated to Yahweh, and others demoted to demons or angels. (It's a fair bet that the redactors did exactly that with Abraham's three visitors in chapter 18... ) Maybe the redactors were satisfied with removing only explicit references to other gods. Maybe they were trying to write a compromise document in which both monotheists and henotheists could see what they wanted. Or maybe it was just judged at some point that the scripture was too sacred to alter any further. (Consider the spelling and grammar mistakes that survive to this day.) Maybe some combination of all of the above happened... This, of course, is all speculation. The point is just that your first question, while a good one, does not shoot the theory down since there are several possibilities, all with precedent, which would account for the passages being left in henotheistic form. Also consider that the story of Noah and the flood, which, although it does not contain any traces of henotheism AFAIK, is a clear example of a story in Genesis that was originally polytheistic, but was edited into a monotheistic one. Put another way, there's at least one original writer who was not a monotheist. |
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06-18-2007, 02:38 PM | #35 | ||
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06-18-2007, 02:58 PM | #36 | ||||||
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06-18-2007, 03:11 PM | #37 |
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Spinoza (TTP, chap. 13) on El and its plural:
Thus El, or Eloah, signifies powerful, as is well known, and only applies to God in respect to His supremacy, as when we call Paul an apostle; the faculties of his power are set forth in an accompanying adjective, as El, great, awful, just, merciful, &c., or else all are understood at once by the use of El in the plural number, with a singular signification, an expression frequently adopted in Scripture. |
06-18-2007, 07:20 PM | #38 | |
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Over and over again in the Torah there are references to other Gods. The references (with a couple of exceptions) do not state that they were false gods, only that they were gods that Hebrews did not know; that is, gods of other peoples. Solomon's remark about the building of the temple is instructive and convincing. If I'm mis-reading your argument, let me know. |
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06-18-2007, 08:41 PM | #39 |
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06-19-2007, 02:26 AM | #40 |
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I thought I had. King Solomon mentions other gods in 2 Chronicles. See the quote in my earlier post. YHWH refers to other gods -- frequently. If they didn't believe in other gods, why did they keep referring to them? Over and over again, it is stated: 'I AM YHWH, your God', not 'I am God', as a monotheistic culture would. Why is this not evidence of polytheism????
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