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Old 04-07-2011, 12:25 AM   #31
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Originally Posted by Doug Shaver
The last time I checked, Jewish law did not prohibit miracles.
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Originally Posted by avi View Post
No, Doug, you are certainly correct, here.
But, then, how does one reconcile, "according to the law", with "miraculous conception".
Why try to reconcile them? You're acting like an inerrantist who is trying to prove that there are no contradictions in the Bible. I don't assume that there was any connection between Paul's thinking and the thinking of the gospel authors. I think Paul's Christ was a different entity from the Christ of the canonical gospels. I expect inconsistencies between what he says and what the gospels authors say.
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Old 04-07-2011, 12:54 AM   #32
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Paul says that Jesus was born "under the law" - meaning, I think, that Jesus was born into a world governed by Jewish law. This was not a comment on his legitimacy or his natural birth. It might not have meant that he was actually born in the normal way - Earl Doherty has some comments on this.

The alternative is Paul's statement that his followers are "not under law but under grace" (Romans 6:14), presumably because of Jesus' death.
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Old 04-07-2011, 01:48 AM   #33
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If I remember correctly, it's not adultery if you don't have sex with the "other woman."
In my opinion, this is something of a "chicken and egg" question, isn't it?

Let's replace the word "sex", with the proper term: copulation.

The idea is simple: one can achieve sexual gratification without copulation, but, in general, (i.e. apart from in vitro fertilization), one cannot achieve zygote formation absent ejaculation, and subsequent implantation of the fertilized embryo in the uterus.

Since JC was born "according to the law", we know that Mary possessed a placenta, and ergo, someone, or something, fertilized an ovum in Mary.

Mary bore a child, derived from a fetus, developed after penetration of the ovum by the sperm, with the consequent joining of two haploid cells, into a single diploid zygote.

That is what "according to the law" means.

Then, the question arises: WHO or WHAT, furnished the sperm?
When Doug or anyone else writes "sex with ...", they mean, "furnish the sperm"....


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So, god must be a human being because only the same species can successfully breed. I wonder what Mrs. God had to say about god fooling around?
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Old 04-07-2011, 07:05 AM   #34
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Originally Posted by Toto
Paul says that Jesus was born "under the law" - meaning, I think, that Jesus was born into a world governed by Jewish law.
Thanks for this input. I believe, contrarily, that if Paul intended readers to simply respect the fact that JC was born into a community governed by Jewish law, then, Paul had no need to write "born of a woman."

Quote:
Originally Posted by Hort&Westcott, Galatians 4:4
ote de hlqen to plhrwma tou cronou exapesteilen o qeoV ton uion autou genomenon ek gunaikoV genomenon upo nomon
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Originally Posted by American Standard Version
...born of a woman, born under the law
In my opinion, this verse is intended to convey to the readers of this letter to Galatians, the "fact", that JC was conceived, born, and reared in strict accordance with the customs, traditions, principles, regulations, and laws of the Jewish kingdom--albeit merely a servile province under Roman military occupation at the time of JC's birth.

The rationale for Paul's writing in this fashion, to my 19th century way of thinking (I am a little slow), would have been to reassure those following the epistle, that JC was not a heathen, and not a pagan, despite his having violated several of the most sacred Jewish laws--including cannibalism, dualism, physical abuse of money changers, and breaking bread with gentiles and heathen, in Tyre and Sidon, if nowhere else....

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Old 04-07-2011, 07:34 AM   #35
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Paul wanted people to know that Jesus was not the son of Asherah.
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Old 04-07-2011, 08:25 AM   #36
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It is my understanding, perhaps inaccurate, that "Galatians" were a group of folks living in what we call today, Turkey, roughly in the center of that remote state at the distant edge of the Roman Empire, i.e. FAR away from the Mediterranean Sea, though, conceivably lying on the route from Baghdad, or the silk route.

That locale does not correspond to my notion (perhaps incorrectly so) of where one would travel, in that era, to find Jews, living and practicing their religion, in quantity sufficient to populate Paul's nascent Christian church. In other words, I doubt that the Galatians themselves, would have been able to comprehend Iskander's logic that Paul had been actually attempting in this verse, Gal 4:4, contrary to the literal text, to explain that JC, although the son of God, was not the offspring of yahweh's wife. Were the farmers of central Turkey, 2000 years ago, sufficiently well educated about Jewish mythology, to make such a deduction from the text of the verse?

(p.s.....not too surprising, but, I, myself, failed to achieve that deduction, though, it must be noted, for the record, that, I am not a Turkish farmer....)

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