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Old 04-20-2006, 09:37 AM   #71
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Originally Posted by Diogenes the Cynic
The Damascus story is in Acts, not in the letters of Paul. Paul does claim to have believed that Jesus talked to him in visions but does not himself tell the Damascus story. Scholars do not doubt that Paul was telling the truth about his own hallucinations but hallucinations do not count as eyewitness accounts of Jesus- only as accounts of hallucinations. Obviously, Paul wasn't ACTUALLY talking to Jesus. Jesus was dead.
I see. Interesting. And you know where Christ's body is then?
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Old 04-20-2006, 09:40 AM   #72
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Hi guys.

I've been reading through this thread, and I actually think (well, err, hope) that Patriot7 simply misunderstood or did not read carefully Diogenes statement, or perhaps does not understand the difference between a first-hand(or eyewitness) account and a second-hand account

Perhaps an example from elsewhere will help him to understand.

Let us assume for a moment that we are talking about the Seige of Alesia in 64BCE, which was done under the command of Julius Caesar. Julius Caesar wrote the "Gallic Wars". We know both from history and JC's book that he was in fact present at the seige of Alesia and wrote about it.

Therefore, JC's Gallic wars can properly be called an eyewitness account or a first-hand account. The person who wrote the book was present when the siege of Alesia occurred and wrote about it.

Roman historian Suetonius also writes about Julius Caesar and the siege of Alesia, and it is fairly certain that Suetonius uses JC's Gallic Wars as a source.

We could not properly refer to Suetonius as an eyewitness account, It is at best a second-hand account, meaning that Suetonius uses a first-hand or eyewitness acount. The eyewitness account is the first-hand account, while Suetonius's account is "second-hand".

We have the same situation with Luke. Luke's account is second-hand. Luke was not an eyewitness, but he might be using first-hand accounts.

I know that it seems overly simplistic to have to explain this, but I have had to explain this to Christians myself (sometimes the same Christian) many many times.

I've also had to explain many times that the NT gospels are works of literature written by skilled Greco-Roman writers who were educated and experienced in the literary art of the time. This not at all what we would expect from native Jewish Galilleans.

Let's see this from the typical Christian's perspective. They have probably been told, or it has been alluded to all their lives by their ministers, priests, teachers and peers that these gospels were written by Jesus's apostles, and are thus eyewitness accounts.

Given that, how else should we expect them to react when they finally hear the truth ? They initially don't believe it and go into denial. But, as they begin to do the research, they soon discover the truth, as Patriot7 eventually will also.
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Old 04-20-2006, 09:43 AM   #73
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Originally Posted by Patriot7
Very cheeky there Sven. I like your style.

If you are interested in switching views of the Gospels for sake discussion, I would love to engage is such a discussion! But you're not going to fault me when I resort to strawmen, ad hominem and red herring arguments are you?
I see. You apparently can not explain. Bummer.
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Old 04-20-2006, 09:50 AM   #74
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To defend your claim? No. For my own interest - yes. Again - your implied argument that education=truth, is fallacious and doesn't advance anyone's knowledege or the conversation.
Problem is: You are the only one who talks about this argument. He has never suggested this. Care to stop this strawman anytime soon?

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I tell you what, since this is so important to you and seems to be a sticking point in the conversation, why don't you PM me your diploma, transcripts, a list of all the books, articles you've read and written and I'll marvel at them. :notworthy:
See above.

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In all seriousness DTC, I'm sure you're a very smart person. But I don't see how it follows from your education, that everything you write on a discussion board is a fact.
:banghead: What exactly about "read this text book" and "follow this link" do you not understand?

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That line of reasoning is glaringly dangerous and is the antithesis of freethinking.
Maybe that's because no one uses this reasoning here.

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I subscribe to an objective notion of truth commonly described as the correspondence theory. My view is if what you claim corresponds to reality - to the world as it real is, then your claim is true.
I'm not aware of any other way to define a claim as true.
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Old 04-20-2006, 09:51 AM   #75
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Originally Posted by Fortuna
Let us assume for a moment that we are talking about the Seige of Alesia in 64BCE, which was done under the command of Julius Caesar.
*cough*

52BCE

*cough*
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Old 04-20-2006, 09:56 AM   #76
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Originally Posted by Fortuna
I know that it seems overly simplistic to have to explain this, but I have had to explain this to Christians myself (sometimes the same Christian) many many times. .......Let's see this from the typical Christian's perspective. They have probably been told, or it has been alluded to all their lives by their ministers, priests, teachers and peers that these gospels were written by Jesus's apostles, and are thus eyewitness accounts.

Given that, how else should we expect them to react when they finally hear the truth ? They initially don't believe it and go into denial. But, as they begin to do the research, they soon discover the truth, as Patriot7 eventually will also.

Man, that is so nice of you to dumb that down for me! You are a true saint! I can't wait to get home, let my wife out of the basement and explain this to her and our 27 children...after she chops wood, makes soap and cleans my whiskey stile of course!

Quote:
Originally Posted by Fortuna
I've also had to explain many times that the NT gospels are works of literature written by skilled Greco-Roman writers who were educated and experienced in the literary art of the time. This not at all what we would expect from native Jewish Galilleans.
Really?! Amazing!! Please tell me more!! I mean these guys must've been really, really good to spawn a worldwide religion and get thousands of people to die in their lifetime for a work of literary art!

You wouldn't happen to have some other works of that time in mind that we could compare the Gospels to would you? You know other works of Jewish or Roman historians? I mean phrases like this one where John writes...."Jesus bent down and started to write on the ground with his finger."....that's pure poetry!! Doesn't sound like he's making a statement of fact there at all.
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Old 04-20-2006, 10:01 AM   #77
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Originally Posted by Patriot7
To defend your claim? No.
This makes no sense at all. You asked me to defend my claim.
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For my own interest - yes.
Well then you should be now be satisfied that what I said was true. The mainstream consensus of contemporary scholarship is that nothing in the New Testament was written by an eyewitness of Jesus.
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Again - your implied argument that education=truth, is fallacious and doesn't advance anyone's knowledege or the conversation.
I've implied no such thing.
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I tell you what, since this is so important to you and seems to be a sticking point in the conversation, why don't you PM me your diploma, transcripts, a list of all the books, articles you've read and written and I'll marvel at them. :notworthy:
It's not important to me at all. I haven't made the slightest attempt to imply that my own (quite unimpressive) education imbues me with any authority. There are posters on this board who are a lot more credentialed than I am. I'm actually slightly embarrassed at how modest my academic background is compared to some others. I am very much an amateur and would never pretend otherwise. This whole tack is just a red herring and an evasive maneuver as far as I'm concerned.
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In all seriousness DTC, I'm sure you're a very smart person. But I don't see how it follows from your education, that everything you write on a discussion board is a fact.
I;ve made no claim that it does.
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That line of reasoning is glaringly dangerous and is the antithesis of freethinking. I subscribe to an objective notion of truth commonly described as the correspondence theory. My view is if what you claim corresponds to reality - to the world as it real is, then your claim is true. To the best of my knowledge this theory was first formalized by Aristotle, but not really "his" in the sense that people think this way who have never heard of him! In otherwords, if I claim your fly is down, you'll most likely look, to see if my claim is true.
Well now that you've cracked a textbook and clicked a link, you know that my claims correspond to reality, so what's your problem?
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To use a different standard for truth, when investigating spiritual matters is done, in my opinion, at our own peril.
:rolling:

First, I'm not investigating "spirtual" matters. I'm discussing historical questions about an ancient text. The Bible has no more "spiritual" significance to me than Homer's Iliad or the Epic of Gilagamesh.

Second, do you actually think this kind of thing is really going to scare anyone around here? We've heard it all before many times, my friend. If you give it a moment's thought, you should be able to figure out that people can't be frightened by something unless they actually believe it exists. When I was in high school, I spent a couple of years in West Africa. On one occasion a tribal native who was alleged to have magical abilities once threatened to turm me into a dog unless I gave him all my money. I laughed out loud at the guy and told him to go ahead, that was something I had to see. The guy walked away. Christian warnings about my soul arouse exactly the same level of fear as that did - none whatsoever.
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Old 04-20-2006, 10:12 AM   #78
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Originally Posted by Diogenes the Cynic
So now you're shifting your argument from claiming that he just decided Jesus' first appearnace was not important enough to write about to suggesting he just didn't know about it?
I'm not saying either. I am saying that number one he didn't have to know about it and number two that not listing it is not an error.
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Where did he get the rest of his information and why didn't all his careful research (according to him) turn up the first appearance?
Who knows? Point is there is not a contradiction just because there is more information in one than the other.
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No, it's a matter of the same event being alleged to have occurred at two different times and then trying to reconcile them by saying the event happened twice.
Which event specifically? Of course I have never tried to say that any event happened twice so I am confused.
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Read it again. It's not that obscure. The same event is alleged by two different people (neither of which who was a witness or who ever met a witness) to have happened at two different times. The apology is to claim that the event happened twice. Ridiculous.
How can you make such bold definite proclaimations about who met who? With that kind of certainty YOU would have to be an eye witness to the writing of the autographs of the gospels. I don't think you are claiming that so I find your certainty curious.
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I wasn't trying to start one, but if you believe the Gospels contain eyewitness accounts, I don't blame you for ducking a debate about it.
It is your opinion that the authors of the bible are not the ones traditionally attached to each book. You cannot objectively prove a thing.
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Of course it's ad hoc. There is no reason at all to even attempt to harmonize them unless you have a pre-existing desire for the accounts to agree with each other.
I disagree. If you don't like the harmonization explanations then that is your choice and that means exactly zero to the rest of us.(or at least it should)
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Old 04-20-2006, 10:15 AM   #79
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Diogenes the Cynic
Well then you should be now be satisfied that what I said was true. The mainstream consensus of contemporary scholarship is that nothing in the New Testament was written by an eyewitness of Jesus.
You keep changing your claim. Your statement was that the mainstream consensus from modern scholarship is that nothing in the NT is an eyewitness account, when clearly at a minimum, Luke makes the claim that his account of the events is from eyewitness. Perhaps you mis-typed. I don't care at this point. This is a waste of time. You're a smart guy. You seem extremely happy entrenched in your position.

Can we change gears here? I would love to explore your hypothesis that the gospels are merely Greek literary creations. Can we try a different path? For the rest of the discussion, I'll try and prove your case - that the Gospels are merely Greek literary creations and you take the counterpoint. I think it would be interesting. What do you say?
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Old 04-20-2006, 10:22 AM   #80
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Originally Posted by Patriot7
I see. Interesting. And you know where Christ's body is then?
Your posts in this thread contain more strawmen than a scarecrow convention.

IF Jesus existed at all (which is an open question) and IF he was crucified (ditto) then there is still no reason to suppose that anyone close to him would have known what happened to the body. They all scrammed when he was arrested. Crucifixion victims were either left on the cross to rot or buried in shallow, unmarked, communal criminals' graves. The Empty Tomb story was probably invented by Mark. There never was a "missing body," just a body whose final disposal was unknown by the earliest Christians.
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