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07-12-2006, 02:51 PM | #391 | |
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If Ted had the reference, he'd know that. It's painfully obvious that what he's done is garner is information from this post from Peter Kirby on the Corpus Paul list. Cut and paste scholarship is, at best, a specious methodology. Regards, Rick Sumner ETA "garner is"? Why do I suddenly feel like a pre-Higgins Eliza Doolittle? Jes you wait 'Enry 'Iggins, jes you wait. |
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07-12-2006, 03:26 PM | #392 | |
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07-12-2006, 07:13 PM | #393 | ||||
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JW: You were able to go 3 days and 3 nights before raising (this). I'll Save whether Mr. Doherty should be considered an Expert on MJ for later, if need be. Normally when someone Fails to answer my central/major/main Point (actually my only one here at this Point in time) I just assume they realize they are wrong and move on. Unless, as Otter and Boone pointed out, that person's brother was named "Fred". So here it is Again Jeff. Maybe you can answer this time: Quote:
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JW: I'll even repeat the central/major/main Question I have for you Jeff: Looking through TJP I Am puzzled as to Where Mr. Doherty indicates that 4.4 is central/major/main to Mr. Doherty's case for MJ: So Where is it Jeff? Joseph http://www.errancywiki.com/index.php/Main_Page |
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07-12-2006, 08:08 PM | #394 | ||
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A great amount of scholarly ink has been spilled over the meaning of "the rulers of this age" (ton archonton tou aionos toutou, verses 6 and 8). In both pagan and Jewish parlance, the word archontes could be used to refer to earthly rulers and those in authority (as in Romans 13:3). But it is also, along with several others like it, a technical term for the spirit forces, the "powers and authorities" who rule the lowest level of the heavenly world and who exercise authority over the events and fate (usually cruel) of the earth, its nations and individuals. That invisible powers, mostly evil, were at work behind earthly phenomena was a widely held belief in Hellenistic times, including among Jews, and it was shared by Christianity. J. H. Charlesworth (Old Testament Pseudepigrapha, p.66) puts it this way:Note two things: First, Charlesworth here is not commenting upon any aspect of 1 Cor 2:6-8. Nor does he say anything in the material that Earl quotes about the meaning with which the term ARCONTES was used by any ancient author, let alone by Paul. What's more (and what's most interesting given your claim that what Earl says Charllesworth says is the basis of your claim about Charleworth and ARCONTES) Earl never says he does. Second, Earl states that the words of Charlesworth that he quotes are words that are to be found on p. 66 in Charlesworth's OT Pseudepigrapha. But when one turns to that page in that volume, not only can nothing resembling what Earl says is there be found on that page; what is found there (a translation, and some notes on the text, of Jubilees 5:26-6:8) does not come from Charlesworth's hand. You asked above if it was right for you, as an amateur, to rely on and use what "experts" say scholars have said as the source for the material from scholars that you employ for the basis of your claims and the ground upon which you build your arguments. I replied that it might be, but only if (1) the "experts" you relied on were worthy of that title, and (2) we could assume that you were capable of reading, understanding, and representing accurately what they say. Well, here we see that vis a vis your claims about safe reliance on Earl for your claims about Charlesworth, neither condition has been met. And so the question is raised once again about how much we should trust anything you say, especially when this involves claims about who said/supports what. Jeffrey Gibson |
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07-12-2006, 08:18 PM | #395 | |
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07-12-2006, 08:42 PM | #396 | |
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http://home.ca.inter.net/oblio/supp08.htm Now, may I ask a favour from you? As I have indicated consistently in the way I sign my posts (save when I have used instead "JG"), and as I have specifically and directly noted on more than one occasion in the body of messages I have sent to several others here, my name is Jeffrey, not Jeff. I would be grateful, then, if you'd do me the courtesy of addressing me with that name, and not with one that is not mine. Jeffrey Gibson |
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07-12-2006, 10:04 PM | #397 | |
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Regards, Rick Sumner |
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07-12-2006, 11:54 PM | #398 | |
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It is interesting to note that Bede's substitution, like Jeffrey, would have us believe that the mechanism archotons used to execute their deeds is more important than what archotons actually were. This is interesting because most authors, including Kirby (Who titles his thread "Rulers") regard the expression "princes of this world" to refer to beings - whether earthly, or otherwise - and not the way their powers were used - which is secondary to the question. Even Origen, who talks of demonic powers, has in mind first of all, demonic beings, not their working mechanism, and not their agents, if any. It is therefore suprising to see otherwise intelligent people quibbling stridently over whether "Origen took this to refer to the demonic powers behind worldly rulers" is more accurate than "Origen took the 'princes of this world' to mean demons. Thackeray for example, writes "Origen (Hom IV in Matt) understood 'the rulers of this age' to mean the angels". Yet nobody picks that passage out of context to fault Thackeray for not writing "Origen (Hom IV in Matt) understood 'the rulers of this age' to mean the angelic powers behind the worldly rulers" This is simply nonsense. One might assume that Jeffrey is trying to remind us that these demons, per Origen, were behind world rulers. But this is even sillier because I start my post by specifically emphasizing that the question of whether the phrase referred to earthly rulers, demons, or demons that were behind earthly rulers, is important. Jeffrey and Rick ignore my emphatic reminder and assume that I am not aware of the distinction. That argument simply has nuisance value. You will notice that Jeffrey completely ignores S.G.F Brandon, still quibbles over whether it is archotons or archons, or even archontes and so on. It is also important to remember that several scholars treat the phrase to refer to earthly rulers. Period. Bearing that in mind, even authors that take the phrase to refer to demonic powers behind the earthly rulers are closer to the mythicist interpretation. Thus Ignatius is still relevant to this question. By the time we reach demonic powers, per Marcion and SGF Brandon, we are deep into JM hypothesis. What persuades one to favour the idea that these demonic powers did not kill Jesus themselves, but used earthly rulers, is influenced by whether one believes in a HJ or not. I think we are done here. It can only go downhill from here, now that Bede has got a substitute and Jeffrey still adamantly refuses to address the references comprehensively. Thanks for the Thackeray passage. Adieu. |
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07-13-2006, 02:15 AM | #399 | |
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The lesson that we need to draw from this thread is: a) Don't cheat. You will be caught out by someone who knows more than you. b) If you are caught cheating, admit it. Don't keep digging by lying. c) Credentials really do matter because they give a reasonable guide to how much we can trust someone's posts. d) The 'princes of this world' doesn't help the JM case. Best wishes Bede |
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07-13-2006, 05:48 AM | #400 | |
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I have recently disagreed with Mr. Gibson the subject of the "pre-existence" of Jesus, According to the Pauline authors, Jesus pre-existed in heaven Dr. Gibson has dismissed this as "proof texting." I am assuming by your silence that you agree with Mr. Gibson, that Paul didn't believe Jesus existed from creation. But how can you? Doesn't the very passgae you have been discussing, 1 Cor. 2:8 which refers to Jesus as the "Lord of Glory" clinch the case for pre-existence? I don't mind being made to look foolish in the least if I am wrong on this. Please set me straight Bede. (Or Jeffrey if you are reading this). Bede, I would also like your opinion on one other issue. In discussions like this, should the KJV be utterly despised? In your opinion. What about the NIV or NASB? Thanks in advance for your reply, Jake Jones IV |
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