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Old 04-13-2008, 12:01 PM   #261
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About the only thing we can say about the Jerusalem bunch is that they were probably messianic (and probably in a Jewish sense) and that was certainly a conflict point with Paul.
The only conflict point we know of was in regard to whether Paul's gentile audience had to conform to all Jewish rules of behavior. If your position were correct, wouldn't we expect to find evidence of far more conflict than this?
Jews had very conflicting positions at the time. The one thing that held them together as a group was praxis. The one thing that Paul clearly rejected.

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Wouldn't we expect to find this group of messianic Jews completely rejecting Paul's ridiculous beliefs?
In a heterodox situation you expect other people to hold ridiculous views.

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And, before you remind me that we should not simply take Paul at his word when he describes the nature of the conflict, wouldn't his readers be very much aware that messianic Jews rejected Paul's messiah as having nothing to do with the messiah Jews expected?
My answer is still the same as the above. If people performed their duties, then they were at least to some degree acceptable.

His readers however only had him as their indicator of what was right. When someone else came along and attempted to set them straight, Paul pulled a hissy fit.

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It seems to me that, given any degree of acceptance of Paul's beliefs by a group of messianic Jews, we are required to assume that this group did not hold with the traditional expectations. Yes?
There need not have been any acceptance of Paul's beliefs and that mightn't have mattered so much. But scratch him and he was a Jew who didn't support Jewish praxis even nominally. You give him a hand shake and send him off to Timbuktu.


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Old 04-13-2008, 01:22 PM   #262
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You will not be able to interpret anyone's ideas without first finding your context for them.
Dumb.
I take that as an attempt to preempt.

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I stringently talk about the necessity of context, but that context isn't retrojected. You cannot go from later to earlier and expect to say you understand the earlier because of what the later says. Earlier influences later, so there is no necessary connection from the later manifestation to the earlier as there is from earlier to later.
I disagree. Going from later to earlier can often be a useful exercise in clarifying issues. Karl Marx used to say justifiably that the the anatomy of man is the key to the anatomy of the ape. There may be endemic issues and conflicts which may be hinted at earlier, but of which we only have some real evidence later (example, Paul's hints at gnosticism at Corinth vs. Ireneaus, Epiphanius, Hegesippus, later). I hear what you are saying but I think you are exaggerating.

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Any reading of history is someone's reading of history.
?
Not surprised you would not be keen on that one.


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No, Paul does not tell us about what the Jerusalem church thought of Jesus.
I mentioned only the messiah in my first question. You think of inserting Jesus automatically. That's endemic.
No, it's just that you are starting with "what's not in is out", and I am starting with "what on balance of probabilities is not out is in"

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But if Paul went to Jerusalem there had to be some common ground he had with the Nazarene church.
You equate Jerusalem with the "Nazarene church". It doesn't come from Paul. You are retrojecting it. You just will not do your job.
So, in you view, describing the Jerusalem church as the Nazarenes, is historically hogwash. Ok, I get it. But, you see my point wasn't really about the church being called Nazarenes, so I take that as an attempt to deconstruct me by the syllable.

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Perhaps there was historical Jesus and he preached the coming of the kingdom,...
True.

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...and since Paul had revelations about the two,...

That is not. You conflate Paul's Jesus with the later Jesus.
An how did you "conclude" this ? The "perhaps" would to a reasonable reader of my post extend to the second part of the sentence.

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...his Jesus rising in imperishable body, would leave some impression, though it evidently not the big splash that Paul hoped for. This is consistent with what Paul tells us and does not need to involve Acts at all. It's interesting that you should think I am reading later church into Paul, that I assume that the Nazarenes had a sectarian messiah, or associated him with Jesus. I don't assume that at all.
Have you seen here what you've been doing... which certainly doesn't come from Paul?
No idea what you are on about...especially since I am showing as the next thing that in some strands of the early traditions, Jesus was not necessarily thought of as the messiah....


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Hebrews calls Jesus him a first apostle of the creed and a high priest of the order of Melchizedek, titles that do not strike me as messianic credentials.
There is nothing messianic about Jesus.
which evidence is based on what ? and which relates to what ?

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But they came from somewhere.
There is nothing messianic Paul's messiah -- except the name. Jesus is not a Jewish military leader who works god's will through temporal means of battle in Paul's writings. Paul's christ a salvific figure.
Doesn't need to be "kingly" messiah. spin. If the [Jerusalem church which Paul references] operated with its own messiah, or proto-messianic High Priest it could have been on the analogy of the Qumran Teacher. Ther may have been enough contact points between him and Paul's Redeemer, for Paul and Jerusalem to talk and divide missions.


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I consider it likely that the idea Jesus was Messiah, was actually Paul's unique stamp and infected the Nazarene rump church only after it was chased out of Jerusalem, came into close contact with Paulinism and vied with it for converts outside of Palestine.
About the only thing we can say about the Jerusalem bunch is that they were probably messianic (and probably in a Jewish sense) and that was certainly a conflict point with Paul.
But there was also some kind of a deal that Paul had done in Jerusalem with the pillars according to which, Paul was getting a piece of the missionary action. Can we also say that ?

And if that was the case, would it not have been around some kind of a central symbol or figure ? Or am I retrojecting something again ?


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It may well have been only after the Jewish war of 66-70 that the some Notzrim agreed to Paul's Jesus Messiah and the Cross as his sign. Jewish Christianity that Matthew addresses was probably the amalgam of a Jesus professing wing of the Nazarenes (roughly the Petrines) and Pauline churches.
I'd be wary of using the term "Notzrim" just yet. As I've pointed out elsewhere the terms nazarhnos and NCR ("netzer") are not liguistically related. In nazarhnos came from Hebrew (a good bet) it would have been NZR and the assorted connections with Nazarites. Paul shows no knowledge of Notzrim or Nazarenes, neither directly nor with any allusions. When Mk was written, the term nazarhnos had significance to his sources. Strangely, when Mt was made out of Mk, its first writer(s) didn't know about nazarhnoi and got rid of the term. It gets further complicated before we get to the Hebrew references.

But then again, after 14 (or 17 ?) years in business, Paul did not know who the leaders of the Jerusalem group were and had to have them pointed out to him. Then there is the question of the extent of Paul's Hebrew, and whether if the church did refer to itself by some NZR/NCR designation he would have caught on. So ok, maybe calling the Jerusalem church Nazarenes at that juncture would be a bit misleading.

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I don't think you'll be able to steer a course through that quagmire.
I am sure it can be made complicated.



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Originally Posted by Solo; post5269238
They knew Jesus "in flesh" and tried to hide the fact that in legal terms Jesus was an executed criminal (Gal 6:12).
You'll notice that Paul doesn't use the name "Jesus" in the context. You'll also notice that you can't discern from your reference what the view of those "who want to make a fair show in the flesh" was regarding the christ that Paul may solely have been responsible for in the 6:12.
You are not going to deny that when Paul says "Christ" in Gal 6:12 he means the "Jesus that we preach" in 2 Cr 11:4. Or are you ? If you are not, you should not have much trouble with the inference that "those who do not want to be persecuted for the cross of Jesus", are denying or downplaying the fact that Jesus (the same man they and Paul reference) was executed. The major point of contention in the theo-politics of Paul. The Petrine hypocrites in Paul's perspective are denying the "truth of the gospel"; i.e. that the man was killed by the very legal implements they insist their converts comply with.

Fair ? Dumb ? Retrojected ?

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Old 04-13-2008, 03:14 PM   #263
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Hiya,

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OK, so where do you go from there? I don't see that these observations shed any light on whether there was a historical Jesus who founded Christianity.
If the argument was :
"Jesus must have existed because all religions have founders",

then
this argument is shown false, as many religions have a central figure who did not exist.


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Old 04-13-2008, 04:10 PM   #264
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Hiya,

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Originally Posted by J-D View Post
OK, so where do you go from there? I don't see that these observations shed any light on whether there was a historical Jesus who founded Christianity.
If the argument was :
"Jesus must have existed because all religions have founders",

then
this argument is shown false, as many religions have a central figure who did not exist.


Iasion
Umm, you've equivocated here between founder and central figure. There are religions whose central figures are not their founders.

And in any case, your conclusion is not as slam dunk as you think it is, since there are; also religions which have central figures (and even founders) who did exist.

I take it you've never had a course in logic -- or that if you did, you failed it (or have forgotten what you learned in it).

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Old 04-13-2008, 05:16 PM   #265
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[QUOTE=No Robots;5228072]
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However, his cardinal view that material could and was transmitted with great care and accuracy remains unchanged. As Hagner puts it, though we do not have the ipissima verba of Jesus, Gerhardsson’s work shows that we do have the ipissima vox.[/INDENT]
The argument that the various Jesus pericopes and quotes found in the gospels must be accurate because they could be accurate is a weak one indeed, but that hasn't prevented stalwart Christians from touting it, despite the lack of evidence that the Greek-speaking writers of the gospels even adhered to the vaunted Rabbinic tradition that supposedly fostered scrupulous accuracy.

It is one thing to ascertain the accuracy of scribal transmissions based on a multiplicity of earlier writings; it is quite another to impute "great care and accuracy" to unidentified individuals transcribing oral material of unknown provenance. They wrote from unknown locations. Their material was supposedly shared with them by equally enigmatic correspondents, not one of whom is identified or even characterized as an eyewitness. At some point along the "telephone line," someone even had to translate Jesus' supposed quotes from Aramaic - a Hebrew -based language - into Greek. Whether these anonymous writers made any use of multiple sources or other means to verify assertions of divine intervention is unknown - but there are no claims to that effect. And there's the age-old question of the 40+ year interval between the purported events and the written narrative.

Given all that, the gospel tales are not merely hearsay; they have no more evidentiary value than the "urban legends" encountered on the Internet. As such, any judge in any court would strike them from the record and tell the jury to disregard them. They cannot even be taken with the proverbial grain of NaCl.

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Old 04-13-2008, 06:16 PM   #266
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The argument that the various Jesus pericopes and quotes found in the gospels must be accurate merely because they could be accurate is a weak one indeed, but that hasn't prevented stalwart Christians from making it, despite the lack of evidence that the Greek-speaking, Hellenized writers of the gospels even adhered to the Rabbinic tradition that supposedly fostered scrupulous accuracy.

It is one thing to ascertain the accuracy of scribal transmissions based on a multiplicity of earlier writings; it is quite another to impute "great care and accuracy" to unidentified individuals transcribing oral and written material of unknown provenance. Their geographical origins are unknown, and they wrote from unknown locations. They all derived their material from Mark, who, after the Romans destroyed the second Temple in Jerusalem, updated and expanded selected passages from the Septuagint, shaping them into a tidy "historical" narrative about a wandering worker of wonders who was supposedly crucified by the authorities forty years earlier. They added quotes and other biographical material from the lost Q gospel, regarding which no provenance can be determined, along with an expanded birth story and a couple of politically-inspired crucifixion narratives. Whether these plagiarists made any use of multiple sources or other means to verify the claims they reasserted is unknown - but there are no assertions to that effect.

Given all that, the gospel tales are worse than even hearsay; they have no more evidentiary value than the "urban legends" encountered on the Internet. As such, any judge in any court would strike them from the record. They cannot even be taken with the proverbial grain of NaCl - but seem to go down nicely if preceded by a large dollop of faith.

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Old 04-13-2008, 06:27 PM   #267
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Some people believe the following to be true: that about the fourth decade of the first century, a man called Jesus preached a messianic message of some variety to the Jews of Palestine; that some accepted him as their leader; that they continued to acknowledge his leadership and preach his message after his execution, and gathered more followers; and that from this group progressively evolved (with doctrinal differences developing over time) the various groups subsequently identified as Christian.

I see nothing to make this account impossible.
Of course it's possible, but is there reason to prefer it over any other explanation? Does it have greater explanatory power? If not, then why accept it?
Depends on what the 'other explanation' is. The only other explanation I have seen offered here with a similar amount of concrete detail is the Pauline invention of Christianity, and as far as I can see now (and I admit that I haven't gone into this very deeply, and am ready to change my view I get more information) the account above is preferable to any account in which Paul originated Christianity, for reasons which I will explain in a moment in response to some other posts.
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Old 04-13-2008, 07:18 PM   #268
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Everything I post is my opinion and what I believe (what else could it be?), so I very seldom feel the need to say so explicitly, and I take what other people post on the same principle.

On the other hand, I normally have reasons for holding my opinions and my theories, and if I post them here I accept that people may ask for those reasons. And that's what I want to ask you. Why do you hold the view you do? What makes you think that Saul of Tarsus actually existed, and that the things you say about him are true? Do you have reasons for preferring your theory to others? I'm curious.
I hold the view that I above summarized because, based upon the total of all types of information that I have examined, it appears to me to be the simple, logical, and rational explanation.
Do you have a (easily articulated) reason to think that Saul of Tarsus DID NOT actually exist?
No. I think that he did exist. I posed the question because I am trying to get a clearer idea of your methodological principles. I assume you have some standard by which you judge that Saul of Tarsus did exist, but which you consider does not apply to Jesus, and I am trying to find out what that is.
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As there is little that is extraordinary in "his" life story,
Which life story is that? Where are you getting it from? Does it include the story of his vision on the road to Damascus? Doesn't that count as 'extraordinary'?
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I personally find no compelling reason to dismiss him as having been a real flesh and blood historical person
Are you suggesting that if extraordinary stories are told about people, that is a compelling reason to dismiss them as having been real flesh-and-blood historical people? Extraordinary stories are told about Frederick Barbarossa, about Charlemagne, and about Alexander the Great. Are those stories compelling reasons to dismiss them as having been real flesh-and-blood historical people?

On the other hand, even if no extraordinary stories are told about people, is that sufficient reason to think that they were real flesh-and-blood historical people? There are no extraordinary events in the Biblical accounts of Jephthah and Saul, to name but two examples. Is that enough reason to suppose that they were real flesh-and-blood historical people?
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who was to some degree involved in the formation of what eventually became the Christian cultus, however nowhere near to that extent that the latter "expanded" Christian propaganda Canon attempts to indicate.
What makes you think that?
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Are the things that I say about Saul (Paul) true?
Well, one thing I am certain of is that I have never deliberately engaged in the making up of Pauline propaganda stories to promote religious doctrines and dogmas. So in that sense I am confident that my position is more "true" than what Christianity continues to promote as "truth".
There I agree with you. But those are not the only two options.
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Is my theory the -ultimate- "truth" of the matter? It may be. However, I make no such claim, as yet there are just too many unknowns, too much "lost" to history, and there simply is not enough concrete evidence to sustain such a claim.
Moreover I retain a right to keep an open mind concerning any new evidence that might effectively disprove my present opinions.

My reasons for preferring my theory to others? Its only excuse for existing, is that it is what makes the most sense to me.
Naturally. But can you explain why you prefer it to the alternative account I have outlined in previous posts?
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If someone can offer me a different theory that makes more convincing sense to me, then I am ready and willing to accept it.
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Old 04-13-2008, 07:48 PM   #269
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Some people believe the following to be true: that about the fourth decade of the first century, a man called Jesus preached a messianic message of some variety to the Jews of Palestine; that some accepted him as their leader; that they continued to acknowledge his leadership and preach his message after his execution, and gathered more followers; and that from this group progressively evolved (with doctrinal differences developing over time) the various groups subsequently identified as Christian.
This is what I called a faith-based position. It is just a highly speculative assumption based on imagination. You have not produce a single independent source to back you up.

A person does not have to do any research to come up with such a faith-based belief. For example, I could make up stuff and say that the man was probably named Judas from Rome and preached to the Greeks and was beheaded in the 2nd century in 101 CE by Trajan. I see no reason why such a belief is impossible, although I just made this up.

The fact is, there is no extant non-apologetic writing that can confirm anyone called Jesus of Nazareth in the 4th decade of the first century.



But, is it that only your account is possible and all others impossible?

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If you reject this account, or prefer a different account, I would like to know why.
I cannot account for Jesus in the 1st century, after reading Philo, Josephus and Eusebius.
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Some people believe the following to be true: that about the fourth decade of the first century, a man called Jesus preached a messianic message of some variety to the Jews of Palestine; that some accepted him as their leader; that they continued to acknowledge his leadership and preach his message after his execution, and gathered more followers; and that from this group progressively evolved (with doctrinal differences developing over time) the various groups subsequently identified as Christian.
So, essentially, you (some people) believe that the Jesus of the NT is fundamentally not true and are now proposing a different Jesus that satisfies their faith or imagination, which may also be not true.

Based on your post, you (some people) believe the following:
  • The conception of NT Jesus is not true.
  • The baptism of NT Jesus is not true.
  • The temptation of NT Jesus is not true.
  • The miracles of NT Jesus is not true.
  • The transfiguration of NT Jesus is not true.
  • The resurrection of NT Jesus is not true.
  • The ascension of NT Jesus is not true.

Therefore, in effect, you (some people) are in agreement with me that the Jesus of the NT is fundamentally fiction, but in addition, you (some people) have fabricated another Jesus which cannot be confirmed to be true and is not found in the books of history.
I am interested in the historical question 'How did Christianity originate?' I think this is a legitimate subject of historical enquiry.

There are a number of possible positions that people could take on this question.

Some people might take the position 'We are not interested in this question'. That's fair enough. But it's not a reason why other people should not take an interest in the question, as I do.

Some people might take the position 'There is insufficient information to settle on a preferred account of origin of Christianity'. That's a reasonable position. However, even so, there are some accounts we can exclude. The religious Christian account can't be true. The religious Muslim account can't be true, either. Saying that there are some accounts which can't be true implies that there are other accounts which don't fall into that category and hence might be true. Therefore, it's still legitimate to ask which category the account I've mentioned before falls into. I haven't seen any reason why it can't be true; hence, it might be true. The fact that there's no mention of it in contemporary non-apologetic literature is beside the point here. Lots of things have happened without being recorded in contemporary apologetic literature or, indeed, at all. There's no contemporary record of any kind of the origin of Judaism; nevertheless, it must have had an origin, even if it's not possible to know what that origin was.

Some people might have another account of the origin of Christianity which they prefer to the one I've mentioned. If so, I'm keen to hear that account and the reason people prefer it. I'm open to be convinced. Given that there's no record of the origin of Christianity in contemporary non-apologetic literature, the only way to form views about how it happened is by drawing inferences from the data that do exist. Historians do that kind of thing all the time. Historians don't restrict themselves to events recorded in contemporary non-apologetic literature, and I can't see any reason why they should.
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Old 04-13-2008, 07:51 PM   #270
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You mean "another Jesus". Just another slip, I suppose.
The pedantry was worth it, wasn't it?

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But of course, if you read Paul like that there is no wonder you come to premature conclusions about his timeline to Jesus.
This sort of contentlessness is a waste of your time. If you have trouble reading Paul's description of his coming to his religion through a revelation, don't try to take it out on me.

This is something that I find hard to understand for anyone reading Galatians 1. Paul is explicit:
1:11. For I want you to know, brothers, that the gospel that was proclaimed by me is not of human origin; 12. for I did not receive it from a human source, nor was I taught it, but I received it through a revelation of Jesus Christ.
I've seen people hedge and hum and ha and retroject Acts into his statement, rewrite it, and however else obfuscate or change it, but his statement is plain. No he wasn't taught his gospel from other people; he got it through divine means. God revealed his son to Paul. It was three years after his revelation before he came into contact with the Jerusalemite messianists. Paul contradicts all the claims about him getting this gospel of Jesus from others.

If one doesn't attempt to read Galatians without dragging in the baggage of prejudices gathered from all one's learnt traditions from later times, the text will remain unfathomed. The assumption that we know what Paul is talking about and what he meant because we have read other things is a veil which stops us reading what Paul actually says.


spin
If we're going to go by a plain reading of the text of Galatians, it says explicitly that Paul's religion predated Paul himself, most directly at 1:23.
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It is interesting and revealing how often Paul's alleged theological teachings are presented as being at odds with the views held by The "Jerusalem Pillars", whom allegedly were the close personal acquaintances of, and the ones specifically chosen and designated as representatives of Jesus, being taught and trained directly by him for a period of over three years, "ALL things"(Mar. 4:34, 13:23 and John 14:26, 15:15) and whom, out of all men, should have been the ones most familiar with His teachings.
How extraordinary that these twelve Apostles, Jesus's closest acquaintances and co-workers in His earthly ministry, who were present when He fed the multitudes, and when He healed the sick, and unto whom He had explained "All Things", were left in an almost total ignorance concerning such things as a Gospel to the Gentiles, the abrogating of The Law's strict requirements of circumcision, the relaxing, and removal of all of the kosher requirements, and many other doctrines and ideas that are peculiarly to be found only within Paul's writings.
What? DID Jesus just happen to just totally forget mentioning these things all the while He was teaching His chosen Apostles "ALL Things"?
And then years latter add on like a sorry post script;
Ooops! I forgot to mention a few important "All things" so here is my brand new "Super Apostle" to correct and teach you Apostles ALL the things that I just plumb forgot to teach you!

What a mess! Paul admits that there are those before him that are The Pillars of The Faith,
Exactly.
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who had walked and talked with Jesus, but he had a "vision" a "revelation" that doesn't agree with their opinions, and so overrules, and essentially replaces their now obsolete Gospel.
The Paulinian NT tries to put a nice spin on it, but essentially The Jerusalem Pillars, and the faithful, upon hearing that load he was attempting to foist upon them, told him to piss-off and go peddle his insane crap somewhere else.
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