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03-10-2011, 10:13 AM | #81 |
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While it may indicate my Canadian instincts for compromise and appeasement haven't been completely extirpated in me, I think you are both right in a sense. The Marcionites clearly represent a reading of Paul which assumed that Jesus was not a human being. They must have been consistent and rational in their exegesis of the Apostolikon. It is unfortunate that the specific Marcionite recension of the Evangelium and Apostolikon has disappeared. I also happen to think that the Marcionite separation of Jesus and Christ (shared by other heretical groups) and a consistent pattern of substituting the terms 'Jesus' and 'Christ' in Marcionite (or Tertullian) readings makes it difficult to tell where 'Christ' was originally held to be a 'man' but my assumption - based on the assumption that the Marcionite exegesis of scripture must have been consistent and rational as aformentioned - is that the 'man' references applied to 'Christ' rather than Jesus.
In other words, it was 'Christ' who 'died' and was resurrected, while Jesus only 'appeared crucified' and 'appeared to have flesh' etc. Just a thought as I look for some distraction from work. |
03-10-2011, 10:19 AM | #82 | ||
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As for spin, he seems to have trouble with a basic concept about debate. My "burden" is to present my case, argued as thoroughly as I can under the circumstances. This I have done, even here in regard to 1 Cor. 15:35-49 and Paul's concept of a 'heavenly man'. If he disagrees with me, his burden is to present a counter-case discrediting my own. This, as I pointed out in my last posting, he largely fails to do, settling instead for simple denial and personal innuendo. What he does try to provide I have taken apart. I hope that you all have noticed that in spin's just-released reply to my last posting, he does not attempt to counter a single one of my arguments concerning the interpretation of 1 Cor. 15:35-49 and my responses to his previous post. (Neither, of course, does judge or any of the other anti-Doherty gallery.) Again, it's more evasion and empty sound. I guess the concept of "burden" is indeed beyond him. He invites others to consult him if they need more of my comments analyzed. The offer is hardly promising, since he has provided no substantive analysis (let alone discrediting) of my comments on his own behalf. Incidentally, the historicist gallery has been quite vocal (if ineffectual), but it would be nice if those who can recognize that I've actually put forward a decent case for my position on Paul's heavenly man and 1 Cor 15:35-49, would contribute a positive word. Earl Doherty |
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03-10-2011, 11:03 AM | #83 |
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<mod had on>
Let's all take a breath and relax. This is not a scholarly forum. It has some aspirations to being semi-scholarly, but the only requirements are adherence to the rules. This board is an outgrowth of the Internet Infidels site, and still has as one of its objectives support for those who have deconverted or are in the process of deconverting. Many of these people cannot afford to use their real names for personal or professional reasons. We respect privacy (up to the point of abusive sock puppetry) of both atheists and believers who don't want their private religious beliefs made public. There are people who post here under their real names, or names that appear to be real, or pseudonyms that can be connected to real names, or anonymously. Focus on the argument, not the person. There is this meme going around that holds that anonymous comments are part of what's wrong with internet debates. My experience is to the contrary. Even when people use their real names, internet debates lack the usual social controls that force people to abide by the rules of social interaction in face to face communication (at least while they are sober.) Carry on. |
03-10-2011, 11:12 AM | #84 | ||||||||||
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Apparently unaccustomed to internet he asks: Quote:
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Language is a communicative tool which functions on assumed knowledge of the receiver of the communication. Earl claims that Paul uses a wide range of words in a different way when talking about Jesus and elucidates what he (Earl) means, without showing how Paul displays the different usage of these words. As to his perverse reading of 1 Cor 15:45 it begs several questions while answering few, as pointed out in my previous post. Quote:
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03-10-2011, 11:24 AM | #85 |
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I've just figured out who you are, spin.
Tim O'Neill under a pseudonym. Your styles are exactly alike. (Very clever to debate yourself on Rational Skepticism!) I trust that our now-terminated exchange has opened others' eyes to you as well as my own. All the best, Earl Doherty |
03-10-2011, 11:34 AM | #86 |
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I take Toto's point about the anonymity question. I continue to have objections to it, but I will let it go. [After saying that Roger Pearse, in private, agreed with me! :-) ]
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03-10-2011, 11:39 AM | #87 |
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Here's a good parallel to 1 Cor 15:45:
1 Cor 15:21 For since death came through a man, the resurrection of the dead has also come through a man; [NRSV KJVized]Death came through the first Adam, the man of dust. Resurrection came through the last Adam, the life-giving spirit after his resurrection. And incidentally, the notion is that Jesus was the first man raised to the spiritual body, just as Adam was the first man given the physical body. Hence Jesus is the last Adam. Rom 14:9 For to this end Christ died and lived again, so that he might be Lord of both the dead and the living.Upon his resurrection Jesus became "lord of both the dead and the living". Prior to that moment he was not. His status changed, being the first to receive the spiritual body. Rom 6:9 We know that Christ, being raised from the dead, will never die again; death no longer has dominion over him.Again, the change in status. Having died in the human body, he doesn't die again. Earl's interpretation of 1 Cor 15:45 only has half a Jesus, the resurrected half. I must ask again: what was Jesus before he was resurrected to be a life-giving spirit? |
03-10-2011, 11:43 AM | #88 | |
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03-10-2011, 11:51 AM | #89 | |
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I give up, I give up, I give up. Earl Doherty |
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03-10-2011, 01:25 PM | #90 | |||
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But one doesn't need mythicism to see that what Paul says need not be related to any reality. Then you don't get the drift of the movement from physical body to spiritual body in 15:44 that is the basis of the following verse. Resurrection gives Jesus the spiritual body. He is the first and if he hasn't been resurrected, then nobody has. I'm actually working from the natural understanding of Paul's words. You are trying to change them to mean other things. You'll never get the linguistic problem you have. Quote:
Jesus became a life-giving spirit upon resurrection. Otherwise, what relationship does 15:45 have to 15:44 to justify Paul's linking the two causally? 44 It is sown a physical body, it is raised a spiritual body. If there is a physical body, there is also a spiritual body. 45 Thus it is written, "The first man, Adam, was made a living being"; the last Adam a life-giving spirit.The first Adam is related to the physical body (as he was the first man), which is raised as a spiritual body and related to the last Adam (as he was the first to resurrected to a spiritual body). This is Paul's process of the resurrection of the dead, ie from physical to spiritual. We saw the first half with Adam (who we must presume will also be raised to a spiritual body) and the second half when Jesus was resurrected (and received a spiritual body). The paradigm derived is not complete, but implied: [T2]{c:bg=silver}Physical body|{c:bg=silver}Death and resurrection|{c:bg=silver}Spiritual body|| "First" Adam|->|(resurrected Adam)|| (pre-resurrected Jesus)|->|"Last Adam"[/T2] But you really gave up when you stopped following the evidence and started following your conclusions. |
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