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Old 01-11-2004, 08:20 AM   #71
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Quote:
Originally posted by spin
Things don't translate so nicely as one would like it into an Indo-European language, for we like more temporal connections.

Originally posted by CyberShy
Of course that's true. Every translation we have will always be fallable.
It is not a matter of fallibility. It is a matter of differences between languages. What Hebrew tries to convey through verbs, Indo-Europeans also convey through temporal references.

Quote:
But I think the KJ Bible is well-known for it's accuracy. As been said before, it's as close as wel will get. In another topic I read that 'atheists' blamed 'fundies' for blaming the translation. I would say: if 'they' can't do it, then you can't either.
You have to deal with the problem case by case. This means you need to understand Hebrew before you can argue on a case basis, so that you can check what the original text says. There are errors in the KJV, such as the "virgin" in Isaiah 7:14.

Quote:
These are the generations of the heavens and the earth when they were created, in the day (yowm) that the Lord God made
- the earth
- and the heavens
- and every plant in the field before it was in the earth
- and every herb of the field before it grew.
This is already in error. While the heavens and the earth are the object of `SWT, you need a clause onto which one attaches, "for the Lord God had not caused it to rain upon the earth: and there was not a man to till the ground". Now Hebrew is prone to verbless clauses and obviously this "for..." statement attaches not to the clause with `SWT, but to the clause with every plant and every herb. This means that the "and" of "and every plant" is not conjunctive and cannot attach the phrase to `SWT, but is a verbless clause which controls the "for..." clause.

Quote:
This part speaks about 'the day' (yowm) in which God made[list]
the plants and herbs are included in this list.
Thus: God created these plants / herbs on this day.

Followed by an explanation why were the plants / herbs created, but not yet growing / coming up from the earth.
The explanation is that there was no man to till the ground.
You should now be able to see the grammatical problem of attaching the "for..." clause to a noun clause. It doesn't make sense, nor does it reflect the structure of what is said.

What you have is the starting condition:

in the day that YHWH Elohim made the earth and the heavens, and all plants of the field not yet on the earth and all herbs not yet grown, for the Lord God had not caused it to rain upon the earth: and there was not a man to till the ground,

so what happened given these starting conditions?

and a vapour rose out of [MN] the earth and watered all the face of the ground, And the Lord God formed man of the dust of the ground

And so this creation was off and running.

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Thus: there was a day in which herbs and plants were created, though they didn't grow / come out of the earth yet.
No. This is not what the text says. See above.

Quote:
This day was before there was any man. (I'll follow your style of reasoning now: ) why don't you just read the text?
It's a shame that you still haven't done so.

Your desire to get to your conclusion is directing your thoughts.

You have to postulate against the grammar, that the plants were first created but not given existence. That's pretty contorted.

Quote:
You can either say that
a. the plants started to grow after man till the ground
b. the plants started to grow after the mist came out of the earth.

But since gen2 makes no mention of man tilling the ground before the plants started to grow, that option would be reading into.
It even says that God made the plants grow in Eden, not man.
Man tills, God creates. By tillling you work the plants. There were no plants for God hadn't created man to work them, so had no reason to create them.

Quote:
you cannot deny that verse 4 and 5 speak about the creation of plants before the creation of man.
This is just more faulty logic, based on faulty premises.

Quote:
verse 8 and 9 are talking about the planting of the garden of Eden. About growing trees out of the ground in this garden, and putting the special trees in the mids of the garden.
It doesn't talk about creating trees!
First creative act: God makes man
Second creative act: God plants the garden
Third creative act: God makes trees spring forth (along with the special ones)

Quote:
The 8th and 9th verses are about man being putted in the garden of Eden. Do you deny that? If so, why do you deny that while it's mentioned?
Ya wot?

Quote:
1. And the LORD God planted a garden eastward in Eden
2. and there he put the man whom he had formed.
3. And out of the ground made the LORD God to grow every tree that is pleasant to the sight, and good for food
4. the tree of life also in the midst of the garden, and the tree of knowledge of good and evil.

1,2 and 4 are about the garden of Eden, for it's mentioned.
3 does indeed not mention the garden of Eden.
Does that make you conclude that 3 is not about the garden of Eden?
I don't see your point.

Quote:
Originally posted by spin
Now you might like to claim that he only made trees in the garden and although the narrative doesn't talk about other trees God made them before. The text simply doesn't allow you to make that conclusion.

Originally posted by CyberShy
verse 7 and 9 indeed don't allow me.
But verse 4 and 5 do.
Verses 4 and 5 definitely don't allow you. You have misinterpreted the text, as pointed out above. Here is your error again:

Quote:
These [are] the generations of the heavens and of the earth when they were created, in the day that the LORD God made (...) every plant of the field before it was in the earth, and every herb of the field before it grew (...) and there was not a man to till the ground.
You wrongfully attach a separate clause to that in v4 which contains `SWT ("made") . See above for the problem explained.


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Old 01-11-2004, 08:41 AM   #72
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To help CyberShy understand the grammar underlying Gen 2:5, he should look at the grammar of 1 Sam 3:7

W-$MW'L +RM YD`'T-YHWH

And Samuel not yet know YHWH

which gets worded:

"And Samuel didn't yet know YHWH"

Gen 2:5a says

W-KL $YX H-$DH +RM YHYH B-'RC

And every plant of the field not yet was on the earth

which gets worded:

"And no plant of the field was yet on the earth"

That's what the grammar requires.


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Old 01-11-2004, 09:23 AM   #73
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Quote:
Originally posted by CyberShy
If the letter of Paul contradicts the letter of John, then it makes no sence to come up with the "Both letters are by different authors" argument either. The Bible should be consistent, eventhough it has many authors.
It seems to be a preoccupation with Christians to "prove" consistency in the Bible. Why does it have to be consistent?

Spin doesn't adhere to the documentary hypothesis per se, but the arguments for separate traditions seem pretty obvious. Having plants "created" but not "growing" is a pretty artful contrivance to serve your need for consistency. Why fashion arguments that go against the linguistics too?

It's good to work a hypothesis through from front to back in a single setting so that it has a proper fleshing. That is why I suggested the reading. It may not be the "truth", but it brings a lot of other material into the discussion that you can't do properly in a thread like this.

You just reject anything that goes against your assumption, yet it remains only that - an assumption.
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Old 01-11-2004, 12:00 PM   #74
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Quote:
Originally posted by rlogan
Spin doesn't adhere to the documentary hypothesis per se, but the arguments for separate traditions seem pretty obvious. Having plants "created" but not "growing" is a pretty artful contrivance to serve your need for consistency. Why fashion arguments that go against the linguistics too?

.
But the "essence precedes existance" argument is as old the "free will" argument and it is wrong to assume that the author was trying to please the linguistis analysis because it is looking all over the globe for solutions while the answers to these questions must be found in our mind, and that is what philosophy is all about.

The idealist verses materialist argument is much like it and from this it is obvious that the obvious is wrong and maybe Occam himself should be trown out with the trimmings he is pointing at.

Before we even start reading Gen.1 and Gen.2 a distinction must be made between "God" and "Lord God" and between "God said" and "Lord God formed" and why it is that Lord God never creates anything but trouble, one might add. If these questions cannot be answered we are obviously looking at different passages.
 
Old 01-11-2004, 03:17 PM   #75
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Quote:
Doc, you seem to be saying that Gen 1 using "Elohim" and Gen 2 using "YHWH" is a contradiction. How is that?
. . . because one is "Elohim" and the other is "YHWH?" Neglect not the differences in the creation stories.

Quote:
Also, where is the contradiction showing Eve being formed from dust on one hand, and a rib on the other?
. . . because, like, one is dust and the other is a rib? I am unaware of a rib being the same as dust!

--J.D.
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Old 01-11-2004, 04:23 PM   #76
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Quote:
Originally posted by Doctor X
GD:



. . . because, like, one is dust and the other is a rib? I am unaware of a rib being the same as dust!

--J.D.
But Eve was never formed out of dust, nor was she taken from a rib. Man was formed out of dust and woman was taken from man's rib. Eve wasn't even thought of at that moment because that all took place before the fall of man.
 
 

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