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02-03-2008, 11:22 AM | #371 | ||||
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the earliest extant Greek translation of the Old Testament from the original Hebrew, presumably made for the use of the Jewish community in Egypt when Greek was the lingua franca throughout the region. Analysis of the language has established that the Torah, or Pentateuch (the first five books of the Old Testament), was translated near the middle of the 3rd century BC and that the rest of the... The red area is where your argument breaks down. The *FULL* paragraph reads as follows: Septuagint abbreviation Lxx, the earliest extant Greek translation of the Old Testament from the original Hebrew, presumably made for the use of the Jewish community in Egypt when Greek was the lingua franca throughout the region. Analysis of the language has established that the Torah, or Pentateuch (the first five books of the Old Testament), was translated near the middle of the 3rd century BC and that the rest of the Old Testament was translated in the 2nd century BC. Notice the blue text? :rolling: And the next paragraph reads: The name Septuagint (from the Latin septuaginta, “70”) wasderived later from the legend that there were 72 translators, 6 from each of the 12 tribes of Israel, who worked in separate cells,translating the whole, and in the end all their versions were identical. In fact there are large differences in style and usage between the Septuagint's translation of the Torah and its translations of the later books in the Old Testament. A tradition that translators were sent to Alexandria by Eleazar, the chief priest at Jerusalem, at the request of Ptolemy II Philadelphus (285–246 BC), a patron of literature, first appeared in the Letter of Aristeas, an unreliable source. So once again, you quote from a source that you neither understand nor appreciate - and the end result is that the source actually *contradicts* you, arnoldo. :rolling: :rolling: :rolling: |
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02-03-2008, 12:30 PM | #372 | |||
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02-03-2008, 12:58 PM | #373 |
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No. It could have been written yesterday and translated today. There is no relationship between when a book is written and when it gets translated.
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02-03-2008, 01:07 PM | #374 |
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There is no reason to believe Daniel was translated in the second century BCE, though, had it been so, there is no way to know how long before that translation it had been written. This is another of his ad hoc inventions unrelated to reality.
It should now be apparent that arnoldo has shown he will not deal with the historical context of Dan 11. He is going to fuck around here for the rest of his brief stay with specious arguments and lame improvisation, showing he's no different from the stray inerrantist clones we so frequently pick up. Unless on the off-chance he returns to his senses and starts to deal with Dan 11, I've finished with his contributions to this thread. :wave: spin |
02-03-2008, 01:31 PM | #375 | ||
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02-03-2008, 01:41 PM | #376 | |||
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02-03-2008, 01:54 PM | #377 |
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Ok I was answering the OP ,not post #46, but I will research those questions. Daniel Chapter 11 is clearly prophetic.
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02-03-2008, 02:14 PM | #378 | |
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But I don't see how that helps your argument at all. Is this another one of your "provide proof for a claim that nobody is disputing" fubars? |
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02-03-2008, 02:23 PM | #379 |
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I think it was a half-remembered misunderstanding of the question:
Do you accept that Nabonidus was in Babylonia at the time of its fall as indicated in the Chronicle of Nabonidus?Nabonidus was indeed in Babylonia: he'd been back over a year. He had collected cultic statues for safekeeping in case of an invasion. He had performed the new year festival as only a king could. He was organizing resistance in Sippar at the time of the loss at Opis which opened way for the Persians to arrive at Babylon where the people gave the city to Ugbaru. spin |
02-03-2008, 03:39 PM | #380 |
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Your still refusing to admit the obvious fact that you are wrong. If you look at the Aramaic definition, which you are avoiding, it says receive, all with acc rei. You are also avoiding the Hebrew entry of accept with acc rei. You are also avoiding the fact that so many translations, translate it as receive. You are also avoiding the other uses in the Aramaic in Daniel where it is receive with the accusative of the the things received. It is obviously permissible to translate it as receive in the normal meaning of the word. You are just wrong.
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