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Old 03-19-2008, 08:27 PM   #181
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Default A list of fallacious arguments.

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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by arnoldo
Of course this is only prophecy written after the fact, right?
If a God exists
If a God exists then he should create a book which would predict natural disasters, the winning lottery tickets, who will be president at exact dates and times, etc,etc.
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and is able to predict the future,
Yes if a God can predict the future then man should not require faith to believe in that God since the prediction would be undisputable.
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it is obvious that he is not the God of the Bible
Yes, it is so obvious that many people waste their time debating that a God that obviously doesn't exist doesn't exist.
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since the Bible contains 100% disputable prophecies.
Wow, what formula did you use to reach that 100% figure?
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I wish to distinguish disputable prophecies from false prophecies.
Wait, you just said that the bible contains 100% disputable prophecies. . . Did you really mean it contains 100% false prophecies??
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A false prophecy is a prophecy that does not come true.
Wrong, it could simply be a prophecy written after the fact of simply bogus historical information that is disguised as prophecy.
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A disputable prophecy does not necessarily have to be a false prophecy.
Right, it could be a prophecy written after the fact, bad history, mere folklore, a metaphor, allegory, a hallucination. . .
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Even if all Bible prophecies are true prophecies
So know the bible contains 100% true prophecies which are also 100% disputable prophecies?
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, they have needlessly failed to convince the vast majority of the people in the world that they are true prophecies.
Rught, and the church is just hanging around here for the past 2000 years for nothing. . .
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If Jesus had accurately predicted what the names of the Roman emperors would be for the next 200 years
It would only prove to have been prophecy after the fact.
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, and their dates of birth and death, those would have been indisputable prophecies
No, the prophecies would have been disputable because people would argue it was written after the fact.
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if we were to define indisputable prophecies as prophecies that could not have been made by humans
Right, Yeshua made many prophecies and he was fully man and fully God.
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, and would therefore plausibly have been made by a God.
or plausibly made up by humans right?
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Since the New Testament says that Jesus made some predictions,
If you want to call "Destroy this temple and in three days I will raise it up" a mere prediction be my guest.
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Christians cannot intelligently argue
No I cannot intelligently argue anything.
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that if Jesus had predicted what I said
Oh yeah right, Jesus should of predicted the roman emperors for the next 200 years and the winning lottery ticket numbers.
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, that that would have unfairly interfered with people’s free will.
I guess you are right about that. People probably would have believed the gospel without hesitation if Jesus would have predicted what you said.
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If Jesus had predicted what I said
If only it would have occurred to Jesus to do what you said.
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, surely more people would have become Christians.
Yes, reading the list of roman emperors would have been quite convincing.... Y-a-w-n
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That is a reasonable assumption
Yes it reasonable if the Roman emperors would have been listed zzzzzzzzzz.
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since historically, many people have accepted all kinds of outlandish religions
True the most outlandish religion of all is secular humanism based upon the theories of neo-darwinism.
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based upon much less convincing evidence than that.
argument by rhetorical question
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In addition, Nostradamus and Edgar Cayce attracted a lot of followers based upon a lot less convincing evidence than that.
bad analogy
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In my opinion, <edit>
Thank you for your opinion.
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Old 03-19-2008, 11:05 PM   #182
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The non-omitted text in Mark
Is irrelevant to the claim made earlier, that no point of doctrine was impacted by OMITTED text. Congratulations on missing the point three times in a row.
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Old 03-20-2008, 01:59 AM   #183
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Please stop posting sarcistic comments as if you can refute an argument by rolling your eyes. Of course these were written after the fact. We have no evidence of these texts until well after that time, and no reason to believe that they were written before the Jewish War.
These seem like dogmatic assertions of fringe beliefs (or at least, petitio principi). They don't seem very convincing to me.

But this thread now seems to be just stone-throwing, and is not the place to try to introduce fact and reason.

All the best,

Roger Pearse
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Old 03-20-2008, 03:47 AM   #184
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Originally Posted by WWJD4aKlondikeBar View Post
More OT - You disputed my "majority" claim without providing any reasoning beyond one author's uncited arguments. I'm honestly interested in learning about this angle, but I wonder if you're touting old opinions. The popular 68-69 estimate was reached in 2005 when we were finally able to read that papyrus I linked above.
Although interesting, the Papyrus in question, P115 http://www.csad.ox.ac.uk/POxy/beast616.htm is dated 250 CE or later. We already knew from Irenaeus that some very early manuscripts had this reading. IMHO it doesn't greatly increase the external evidence for 616 rather than 666.

Andrew Criddle
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Old 03-20-2008, 09:59 AM   #185
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Originally Posted by Roger Pearse View Post
These seem like dogmatic assertions of fringe beliefs (or at least, petitio principi). They don't seem very convincing to me.

But this thread now seems to be just stone-throwing, and is not the place to try to introduce fact and reason.
Thank you for admitting you were wrong. I accept your apology.
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Old 03-20-2008, 10:09 AM   #186
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Quote:
arnoldo:
Ok, so the options in reference to the NT are

A. It's true
B. It's deliberate lies
C. It's innocent folktales

I guess answer A is out of the question so the NT is either B or C, right?

Sheshonq:
D. accidental mistakes - either of copyist or author
E. Dreams
F. Delusions (psychotic or drug induced)
G. Improvements based on faulty sources or understanding (eg Jesus on two animals in Mt 21:7)
H. Accretions from multiple retellings (everyone tells a story differently)
...

Could be any one but almost certainly a mixture of several. Truth, lies, errors, delusions, etc.


spin
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Old 03-20-2008, 12:43 PM   #187
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Toto View Post
Please stop posting sarcistic comments as if you can refute an argument by rolling your eyes. Of course these were written after the fact. We have no evidence of these texts until well after that time, and no reason to believe that they were written before the Jewish War.
These seem like dogmatic assertions of fringe beliefs (or at least, petitio principi). They don't seem very convincing to me.
But you're the person who is dogmatically convinced that 4th century copies can be treated as if they were 1st century original, autograph manuscripts.

Given that unfortunate misconception, why would we care about what you found to be unconvincing? Your attitude suggests that you aren't evaluating the evidence objectively anyhow.

Quote:
But this thread now seems to be just stone-throwing, and is not the place to try to introduce fact and reason.
Handwaving as you exit, stage left - hoping nobody remembers that you have studiously avoided explaining why you treat 1st century autographs and 4th century copies as if there were no important differences.
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Old 03-20-2008, 02:12 PM   #188
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Roger Pearse
But this thread now seems to be just stone-throwing, and is not the place to try to introduce fact and reason.
Fact and reason regarding what may I ask?
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Old 03-21-2008, 09:34 AM   #189
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Quote:
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Roger Pearse
But this thread now seems to be just stone-throwing, and is not the place to try to introduce fact and reason.
Fact and reason regarding what may I ask?
Perhaps fact and reason that the OT/NT are fiction?
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Old 03-21-2008, 10:44 AM   #190
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JW:
As previously mentioned, trying to measure the Unknown difference between Originals and Extants is Subjective. JP Holding has an interesting excerpt here (emphasis mine):

http://www.tektonics.org/lp/nttextcrit.html#agree

Quote:
How well do modern textual critics agree? An encyclopedic treatment of this issue is presented by the team of Kurt and Barbara Aland, who provide statistics as to both the percentage of variant free verses among the seven major editions of the Greek NT, and the number of variants per page (excluding orthographic errors). It is helpful to look at these [Alan.TNT, 29-30]:

Book---% of variant-free verses---# of variants per page

* Matthew 59.9 / 6.8
* Mark 45.1 / 10.3
* Luke 57.2 / 6.9
* John 51.8 / 8.5
* Acts 67.3 / 4.2
* Romans 75.5 / 2.9
* 1 Corinthians 75.7 / 3.5
* 2 Corinthians 78.1 / 2.8
* Galatians 76.5 / 3.3
* Ephesians 76.1 / 2.9
* Philippians 70.2 / 2.5
* Colossians 72.6 / 3.4
* 1 Thess. 68.5 / 4.1
* 2 Thess. 72.3 / 3.1
* 1 Timothy 81.4 / 2.9
* 2 Timothy 79.5 / 2.8
* Titus 71.7 / 2.3
* Philemon 76.0 / 5.1
* Hebrews 77.2 / 2.9
* James 61.6 / 5.6
* 1 Peter 66.6 / 5.7
* 2 Peter 52.5 / 6.5
* 1 John 72.4 / 2.8
* 2 John 61.5 / 4.5
* 3 John 73.3 / 3.2
* Jude 72.0 / 4.2
* Revelation 52.8 / 5.1

Total 62.9 equals 4999/7947 verses

The agreement here is quite astonishing, considering that this is the combined result of seven different teams and/or persons over an extended period of time. That all 7 editions completely agree on close to two-thirds of the NT is a striking indication of how much confidence we may have in our present text. (Though not given, the next statistics would show agreements on 6 out of 7, 5 out of 7, etc. - and if the trend above is followed, we might well reach that 99% agreement before going too far down the ladder!)
JW:
Holding's scholarship is poor by the standards of this Forum and he can not be relied on as a primary source because he sometimes misquotes and often quotes out of context and therefore, everything he says must be checked. However, as a starting point note above that "Mark", the original Gospel, stands out as the most changed Gospel. Including this observation we have the following list indicating that the earlier we go in TransMission history, the more likely it is that there was change:

1) The original Gospel has been changed the most.

2) Common sense (always the best factor) tells us that earlier Christian writings had lower Christology and therefore would be more likely to be changed.

3) We have relatively little extant Before Christianity gained control suggesting that to some extent Christianity chose not to preserve earlier.

4) Patristic quotes that do not agree to the Extant are more common earlier than later.

5) The earliest extant is from "John", the last Gospel. Just what we would expect.

6) The Patristic evidence indicates that "Mark" was not considered authoritative until the Forged ending.

All these factors indicate it Likely that Textual Variation pre-Extant is greater than post and that the only evidence of obscuRanticism regarding coming to this conclusion is itself the charge of obscuRanticism.



Joseph
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