spin

Rectal scan.


spin

Jeffrey Gibson

I don't recall saying anything about how this would be difficult to imagine. But that's not the issue, is it.

Jeffrey

spin

If we must get to your issue,

This understanding of yours seems to be based on no evidence that actually points to reflecting the era that is being talked about whatsoever. Is this not correct?




spin

Jeffrey Gibson

Depends on when one dates the Kaddish which was an Aramaic prayer, yes? as well as the historicity and accuracy of the Gospel reports of Jesus praying in Aramaic, and the implications of 1 Cor 16:22 and Rev. 22:20 for the language of personal (not statutory) prayer.

Jeffrey

spin

Does it? OK, let's make that "one" you and let's see you date it!

You might be able to wedge a concession of possibility with this (as I'm too lazy to deal with it), but nothing to point to your exclusive claim "that private prayer (and even private prayer in which an individual quoted Biblical material) would have been said in Aramaic", which is the issue you were touting. So I'm still waiting for the, no... some, well, a skerrick of evidence that would exclude Hebrew being used in private prayer.

Once again I rue the lack of a holding-one's-breath smilie.


spin

DCHindley

The phrase I've heard used is "translation Greek." Since Greek has a fundamentally different grammar than Hebrew or Aramaic, the latter languages tend to translate into non-standard Greek.

Another clue is due to Hebrew/Aramaic not using vowels (yes, I know, there are exceptions), so that the same series of letters can signify more than one distinctly pronounced word. If the translator encounters an unfamiliar word or grammatical form, and misunderstands which specific word was intended, the Greek word he chooses for it can tell us he was translating Hebrew or Aramaic.

Do a Google search on the phrase ["translation Greek" Hebrew Aramaic] (just like that, without the brackets of course but include the quotation marks). A good discussion by James R Davila, Professor of Early Jewish Studies at University of St Andrews (Scotland), entitled "(HOW) CAN WE TELL IF A GREEK APOCRYPHON OR PSEUDEPIGRAPHON HAS BEEN TRANSLATED FROM HEBREW OR ARAMAIC?", is here.

DCH