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Old 04-30-2012, 09:44 PM   #21
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"Son of God" is not any kind of special or unique designation. It implies no divinity of any sort.
It must be special since ONLY Jesus was SINGLED out as the Son of God in gMark.

Please, if the author of gMark wanted to claim Jesus was the Son of God what would he write???

He would write EXACTLY what is found in gMark. The supposed Jesus was IDENTIFIED as the Son of God in gMark.

The very story in gMark shows that the supposed Jesus made a Blasphemous statement.

Why are you boneheadedly TRYING to re-write gMark??

Mark 14
Quote:
Again the high priest asked him, and said unto him, Art thou the Christ, the Son of the Blessed?

62And Jesus said , I am : and ye shall see the Son of man sitting on the right hand of power, and coming in the clouds of heaven.

63Then the high priest rent his clothes, and saith , What need we any further witnesses?

64 Ye have heard the blasphemy: what think ye? And they all condemned him to be guilty of death.
Why is it so difficult to accept the STORY.

gMark is a story about the Son of God called Jesus that was REJECTED by the Jews and was crucified.
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Old 05-01-2012, 01:01 AM   #22
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But doesn't this simply ignore all of Mark's subtle hints?
What subtle hints are you referring to? Mark, as I read it, is about a Son of Man and a Christ, not God incarnate. People think that Mark is about God incarnate because they read John and later high-Christology works back into it. Please post chapter and verse of what you think indicates that Mark's Christology is as high as John's, but in a subtle way.
Let me ask you this question.

Do you think that such a strict monotheism, in the sense that there were thought to be absolutely no other types of gods in existence, is the correct basis from which to argue Mark?
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Old 05-01-2012, 02:50 AM   #23
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Mark 1:1 "The beginning of the good news about Jesus the Messiah, the Son of God, as it is written in Isaiah the prophet."

Mark, his reader, and Jesus know a secret that no one else in the story knows -- that Jesus is the "literal" Son of God. This is explicitly stated in the first line. Mark's character doesn't come right out and say, "Hey, everybody, I'm the son of God," because it would ruin the suspense of his story.
First, some MSS omit "Son of God," so it is possible that this line is an interpolation. This would be consistent with NT interpolations, which generally tend to add extra honorifics and descriptors to Jesus. So we can't at all rely on this verse to give us a high Christology in Mark.

Second, it shouldn't say "the Son of God" - that's reading the trinity back into Mark, when the problem is precisely that Mark didn't present a trinitarian view. Linguistically the Greek is "υἱοῦ τοῦ θεοῦ", which means "(a) son of the God." Sticking the later meaning of "the Son of God" into this passage is sloppy eisegesis. Other Jewish leaders had been called "sons of God" in the past, it was hardly without precedent or with the special meaning of a being with no father other than God.

Third, again, it's still lower than Luke or Matthew. Lacking entirely a virgin birth, and therefore the miraculous descent literally from God, Mark is fully compatible with an adoptionistic world view, where Jesus is not the pre-existing deity of John or the virgin-born literal son of God of Matthew and Luke, but is made a figurative "son" of God either at his baptism or his crucifixion.

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It is completely consistent with Mark, from the very first line. Mark is constructing theology, not dispassionately reporting oral tradition.
And yet if Mark were constructing his Gospel out of an understanding of a mythical god-man, as the mythicist case requires, the low Christology makes no sense. You don't know Mark's motive any more than I do.
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Old 05-01-2012, 02:54 AM   #24
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Originally Posted by Diogenes the Cynic View Post
"Son of God" is not any kind of special or unique designation. It implies no divinity of any sort.
This is correct, and it's one of the frustrating things for me about people trying to understand early Christian documents. There is a ton of back-reading later Christian ideas into them. Mark doesn't make his Jesus out to be God. Paul, while taking a somewhat "higher" view (as I've said, this may be a dichotomy of Christ on earth versus Christ crucified), doesn't require him to either be God incarnate, or to be born of a virgin. So if the earliest Christian writers were not writing about a god-man, as most of their modern followers think, the actual positive case of the mythicists doesn't make sense.
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Old 05-01-2012, 04:46 AM   #25
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Mark doesn't make his Jesus out to be God.
What was the blasphemy that Mark recorded that Jesus was accused of?
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Old 05-01-2012, 05:51 AM   #26
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What was the blasphemy that Mark recorded that Jesus was accused of?
Mark 14:61-63 (ESV):
Quote:
61 But he remained silent and made no answer. Again the high priest asked him, "Are you the Christ, the Son of the Blessed?" 62 And Jesus said, "I am, and you will see the Son of Man seated at the right hand of Power, and coming with the clouds of heaven." 63 And the high priest tore his garments and said, "What further witnesses do we need? 64 You have heard his blasphemy. What is your decision?" And they all condemned him as deserving death.
I have to emphasize yet again - the "son of the Blessed" (if we assume that εὐλογητός is referring to God here) does not imply that Jesus would be the son of God in the sense of Matthew and Luke's literal "born of a virgin", or the idea that he was somehow himself God. He again emphasizes that he is the "Son of Man." Presumably the blasphemy is that Jesus has arrogated to himself the title of the Christ, which technically according to Jewish Law would not have been blasphemy. In order to actually commit blasphemy under the Law, Jesus would have had to curse the name of YHWH, which he does not do nor is accused of doing. You don't get "I am God" here unless you read the Trinity back into the document.
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Old 05-01-2012, 05:57 AM   #27
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Mark thought claiming to be the Messiah was blasphemy. He was wrong, but he needed to contrive some way to blame the Jews for killing Jesus rather than the Romans. The irony is that claiming to be the Messiah violates no Jewish law, but was a seditious claim under Roman law.
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Old 05-01-2012, 06:14 AM   #28
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What was the blasphemy that Mark recorded that Jesus was accused of?
Mark 14:61-63 (ESV):
Why the quote? Why the ESV?

Quote:
Presumably the blasphemy is that Jesus has arrogated to himself the title of the Christ, which technically according to Jewish Law would not have been blasphemy.
Self-contradictory nonsense.

Why did the Sanhedrin, who knew all about the Law, accuse Jesus of blasphemy?
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Old 05-01-2012, 07:32 AM   #29
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Why the quote? Why the ESV?
You asked specifically about the accusation of blasphemy in Mark, which is dealt with clearly and explicitly in the quote I provided.

Do you have a problem with the ESV specifically? I find it reads better than the NASB while not going toward the heavy dynamic equivalence of the NIV, and it doesn't mess around with terminology in the way the NRSV did.

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Self-contradictory nonsense.

Why did the Sanhedrin, who knew all about the Law, accuse Jesus of blasphemy?
As Diogenes clearly stated above, the charge of blasphemy was incorrect - but they needed some capital crime for Jesus to be executed. It's fairly clear that the Sanhedrin has acted as a kangaroo court in Mark, not giving way to any technical niceties about what the actual blasphemy was.
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Old 05-01-2012, 08:38 AM   #30
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Why the quote? Why the ESV?
You asked specifically about the accusation of blasphemy in Mark
Which I therefore don't need to read! Neither does anyone, if it's already quoted, from the original language, surely.

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Do you have a problem with the ESV specifically?
Personal pronouns are out of place.

Quote:
I find it reads better than the NASB
Personal preferences are out of place. Scholarship is appropriate; as is the NASB, if any quote is needed, which is not the case.

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What people find while not going toward the heavy dynamic equivalence of the NIV, and it doesn't mess around with terminology in the way the NRSV did.
More personal opinion/propaganda.

Quote:
Self-contradictory nonsense.

Why did the Sanhedrin, who knew all about the Law, accuse Jesus of blasphemy?
Quote:
As Diogenes clearly stated above, the charge of blasphemy was incorrect
The statement made was that Mark was mendacious; to the point of criminality, of libel, in this case.

Is this a correct assessment of Mark?

Quote:
- but they needed some capital crime for Jesus to be executed.
So it was the mendacious who opposed Jesus.

But they did not need an execution to get rid of Jesus. They were going to stone him theretofore; and they succeeded, with Stephen. So Jesus had forced them into making a genuine, or apparently genuine reason, for a public death that would be shaming, in the hope of terminating the following of Jesus; not a lynching, that would be liable to increase their own reputation for corruption, and their unpopularity.

So it's nonsensical to suppose that they had got to this necessity but then did not find a substantive reason, or apparently substantive reason, for legal execution. It's even more nonsensical to quote a passage and then ignore it. We clearly read, in any version, that 'the whole Sanhedrin' was told, "You have heard the blasphemy." It was not the claim to be the Messiah per se. So what had the Sanhedrin heard from the lips of Jesus as recorded in this gospel that was blasphemous?
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