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07-08-2004, 02:49 PM | #41 | |
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I'd suggest a thread at ebla rather than here although I don't know I'll have much to add. B |
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07-08-2004, 02:50 PM | #42 |
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Bede, what fun are you? You can't stake out a position like that and then say it's not worth it and walk away as if you had proven something.
In reply to your last post, you notice the vast difference that modern armament makes in the empowerment of the lone nut. You will also notice that those were cases of a lone gunman committing a crime, not a lone nut with a whip clearing out a shopping mall and not getting arrested. And you haven't explained the multiple attestation, or how that overrides the implausibility of the story or how it is missing from the earliest sources. But if you don't want to talk about it, there's nothing I can do. |
07-08-2004, 03:17 PM | #43 |
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On the subject of the title of this thread, is ancient history ultimately subjective?
I don't think that subjective is quite the right word. Your taste in food or music is subjective - no one can criticize you if you pick peach ice cream instead of chocolate cake. (Well, they can, but there is no basis for it. It is all a matter of taste.) In the case of history, in theory we might discover enough hard evidence so that all reasonable people would have to agree that X event happened or not. But this is rarely the case in ancient history. The evidence is usually indeterminate, indecisive, and/or probably corrupted. Does this mean that you are free to believe anything you want? I think that where the evidence is equivocal, you are free to put forth one hypothesis or another, and reasonable minds might differ on how probable these hypotheses are, but the only valid stance is agnosticism. I think that this is how much of modern scholarship actually works, which is why you do not see scholars writing books about proving that Jesus existed or not, and why you do see scholars arguing about the text, since the text is the only real artifact that we have. |
07-08-2004, 05:46 PM | #44 | ||||||||
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In other words, each time you attempt to compare the mythicist exegesis with other takes on history, you fail miserably. Vorkosigan |
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07-08-2004, 06:03 PM | #45 | |||
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07-08-2004, 06:27 PM | #46 | |
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07-08-2004, 06:28 PM | #47 | |
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Vorkosigan |
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07-08-2004, 06:33 PM | #48 | |
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John 2 gives a very clear chronologial reference to when Jesus cleansed the Temple. This dating is the sort of hard historical information that apologists ignore. They insist the date in John 2 for the cleansing of the Temple is wrong and that it took place years later. |
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07-08-2004, 06:35 PM | #49 | ||
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07-09-2004, 01:44 AM | #50 | ||
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1. The writers of the scrolls were working well before the first century. Pesher Habakkuk carbon-dates to the first century BCE. 2. When those who wrote the scrolls were the temple priesthood -- you know, "sons of Zadok", "sons of Aaron" and "sons of Levi" -- how can they be called a "sect"?? 3. The scrolls were stuck in the caves in the first century BCE and they were never reclaimed (despite Schiffman's book). Tell me where there are any allusions to anyone after Aemilius Scaurus. [Omit one long diatribe from me] Quote:
spin (I'm plowing through Jodi Magness's facile stupidy aka "The Archaeology of Qumran and the DSS". What a waste of an education. A distinguished professor, indeed.) |
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