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Old 01-21-2008, 10:52 PM   #121
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It doesn't hurt it in my mind.
Why faith in this and not faith in God? To me, they're both the same. Both lack evidence.

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Very few texts exist from the 1st/2nd century other than those that people made copies of because they were deemed important.
Fortunately, we also have numerous heretical works documented, and nothing similar exists in those either.

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The existence of texts biased toward historicity implies nothing other than the lineage that assumed historicity survived - something we already know to be the case. It does not imply the lack of competing beliefs early on.
We already know about the competing beliefs. You cannot, however, claim something without any evidence. Pony up or shut up, essentially.

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I'm not implying absolutes. I'm implying that the fact Luke thought it historical is not relevant evidence in determining the original genre, unless it is first shown that Luke is reasonably contemporary to Mark. The original genre is best determined from internal evidence, not external evidence from possibly half a century later or more.
Possibly half a century or more later? 30 years is the upper limit.

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Possibly, possibly not. This is probably why we disagree. I do not assume that Luke is writing very closely to Mark.
Let me guess, because we "disagree" on the dating of Luke, I must be the one assuming.

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Without that assumption the argument collapses. There is a further implied assumption that Luke is NOT attempting revisionist history.
This is merely ad hom. I've assumed no such thing. I work from the evidence.

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I don't think that's a fair assumption either. After all, what else would be his motive for rewriting Mark, except to insert his own revisionist spin?
So all historians when they use older sources are merely motivated by inserting their own revisionist spin? What a cynical outlook on historians you have.

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It's possible that Luke wrote 80+ years after Mark
Possible != Probable.

If you want to make an attempt at dating Luke, feel free.
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Old 01-21-2008, 11:15 PM   #122
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Josephus is clearly an historian, writing in the historical genre, and yet he mentions the fantastic.
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I agree he does, but then again, Josephus IS clearly a historian attempting to write in the historical genre. We don't know that a priori regarding the author of Mark.
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Well, actually, he isn't, if you want to get technical, but that's besides the point. So back to the topic, how do you know that Josephus is writing history? Isn't it fairly clear that those closest to him didn't use him as anything but history as indicative of his genre?
Solitary Man, you are technically a flip-flopper. You contradict yourself. It is a fallacy to try to maintain two complete opposite positions.
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Old 01-22-2008, 12:56 AM   #123
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The problem as I see it, which does not yet appear to have been addressed in this thread, is that those you listed take ALL of Mark to be historical, including the fantastic portions. If we start with the assumption that the fantastic portions simply are not historical, then I don't see how the fact that these others thought Mark to be historical adds any weight to the argument.
the non-dfantastic parts are as fictive as the fantastic parts

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These later writers clearly had no insight into which portions were historical or fabricated, or they would not have treated the obviously fabricated portions as historical, assuming honest intents on their part. Without the assumption of honest intents, they serve no value at all in regards to this discussion.

If there are early sources that accept the ordinary parts, but reject the fantastic, they would bear weight on the argument. The Ebionites?
If Ebionites did that, they would be deceivers like Euhemeros.
Only naive scholars like Crossan could trust them.
But they possibly depicted Jesus as an angel.
They rejected the God Jesus due to their monotheist bias.

Anyways the Markan authors did not write history, but a community catechism
for the Roman Catholic church, and so did the authors of Matthew and Luke before him, possibly even the same authors, anyways powermongers like Irenaeus, Justin M, Polykarp, Theophilos, and similar sinistrous figures. They used previous mythical material like the Memorabilia Apostolorum or the Logia of the Lord in Five Books, and the gospels of the pre-Catholic heresies that they refuted, like Marcion, Valentinus, Kerythos, Satornil, the Barbeloites, the Sethians, the Cainites, Basilides, ...

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Old 01-22-2008, 04:54 AM   #124
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Of course it could be complete hogwash. I'm using the consesus that 'most' scholars, whether religious or not, have all come to these estimates and conclusions.
When a text was written can have profound effects on arguments. What most scholars think is just what most scholars think. It doesn't mean too much. What we have evidence for is another matter. If you base arguments on what scholars think rather than the available evidence, you risk not saying anything useful. No available evidence means no tangible argument.


spin
What evidence is there that Mark was not the first gospel to be written? The author was trying to understand the legend of this Jesus by referring to the various passages in the O/T. Time after time he writes ''this was done in accordance with the scriptures''. Or ''to fulfil the scriptures''. Not that is evidence of Mark being first, but shows the primitive nature of it. What was being written was what was floating about by word of mouth by various people who heard it from a friend of a friend of a witness. Such tales would be fortunate to contain 5-10% of fact.
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Old 01-22-2008, 05:06 AM   #125
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Of course it could be complete hogwash. I'm using the consesus that 'most' scholars, whether religious or not, have all come to these estimates and conclusions.
When a text was written can have profound effects on arguments. What most scholars think is just what most scholars think. It doesn't mean too much. What we have evidence for is another matter. If you base arguments on what scholars think rather than the available evidence, you risk not saying anything useful. No available evidence means no tangible argument.


spin
#1) The pattern of copying between Mark, Matthew, and Luke is best explained as Matthew and Luke having been copied from Mark.

#2) (More importantly IMO) The structure of the narrative in Mark is mutilated by Matthew and Luke. Things are clearly in order, flow, and have cohesive literary allusions in Mark, then they are trashed in Matthew and Luke. This is highly indicative that the writers of Matthew and Luke copied from Mark and altered it. To go from Matthew or Luke to Mark would be basically impossible.

#3) The absence of particular narrative elements in Mark that are in Luke indicates its earlier status, such as the lack of birth narrative, etc.

I think the case for Mark being first is as water tight as any case can be. I'd give it 99.9% certainty.
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Old 01-22-2008, 07:44 AM   #126
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#3) The absence of particular narrative elements in Mark that are in Luke indicates its earlier status, such as the lack of birth narrative, etc.
But couldn't the absence of the birth narrative in gJohn be used to indicate an early writing of this gospel?

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I think the case for Mark being first is as water tight as any case can be. I'd give it 99.9% certainty.
GMark being the first is a reasonable hypothesis, but sometimes I get the impression that it may have been written after gMatthew. This theory is based on the dating of gJohn. If gJohn was written last and still does not contain the story of the birth of Jesus, then gMark also could have been written later than gMatthew, since the story is also missing.

Perhaps the author of gJohn was not comfortable with or thought the birth stories of Jesus, as depicted by gMatthew and gLuke, were not believable, and maybe the author of gMark editted gMatthew to fabricate a more "believable" gospel by removing the parts that appeared incredible.
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Old 01-22-2008, 09:26 AM   #127
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Hi patcleaver - the people who claim that the Catholic Church ran a forgery mill think that Eusebius was the head of it.
What do you mean ran - Christians are still running the greatest forgery mill that ever existed and Christian fraud is rampant. ....
Hi patcleaver: you will get further if you do not generalize about all Christians. They do not all engage in forgery, and some of them even put some effort into exposing other Christians' fraud, using Christian values.

When you scatter charges with such a broad brush, you reduce your own credibility. Yes, David Barton has been peddling falsehoods about American history. But he is not typical of American Christians, and I know of no reason for any later Christian to falsify Eusebius.
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Old 01-22-2008, 12:08 PM   #128
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Why faith in this and not faith in God? To me, they're both the same. Both lack evidence.
I have no idea what faith has to do with this discussion.

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Pony up or shut up, essentially.
aa5874 already ponied up http://iidb.infidels.org/vbb/showthr...47#post5106247. Now I suppose it's your turn to "pony up or shut up" regarding your claim that "Luke is writing very closely to Mark".
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Old 01-22-2008, 02:51 PM   #129
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I think the case for Mark being first is as water tight as any case can be. I'd give it 99.9% certainty.
no, it's a hallucination by naive (mainline) scholars

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Old 01-22-2008, 04:17 PM   #130
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I think the case for Mark being first is as water tight as any case can be. I'd give it 99.9% certainty.
no, it's a hallucination by naive (mainline) scholars
Something with a little reasoning would be useful. Your correspondent thought he provided some. Surely you should as well, rather than giving an unsupported opinion whose validity is certainly not clear.


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