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Old 10-16-2011, 04:36 PM   #111
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Sinaiticus Mark is NOT a Gospel it is BAD NEWS about a character called Jesus. The author of S-Mark (Sinaiticus Mark) is telling, for the first time, an UNTOLD story about a character called Jesus who died in Disgrace, Abandoned, Denied and Rejected by the Jews and his OWN disciples.

S-Mark MUST or most likely PREDATED the ENTIRE NT CANON.

The NT CANON is about the GOOD NEWS of the resurrection.

S-Mark has NO theological value.

S-Mark contains the most critical words not found in any other book of the NT Canon.

Sinaiticus Mark 16.8
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8 And going out they fled from the sepulcher; for trembling and astonishment had seized them; and they said nothing to any one, for they were afraid.
After the Fall of the Temple c 70 CE the Jesus story was UNKNOWN.

SINAITICUS-MARK PREDATES ALL BOOKS OF THE ENTIRE NT CANON.
If the statement 'they said nothing to any one' had remained true, then the text in question could not have been written. It may have been true at one time, but at some point somebody must have passed on some information to somebody or the text could never have come to be written.
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Old 10-16-2011, 04:38 PM   #112
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It is NOT likely that the author of Sinaiticus Mark knew of Acts of the Apostles, the Pauline writings, gMatthew, gLuke, gJohn or any good News of the resurrection of Jesus.

Sinaiticus Mark has destroyed the history of the Church.

Acts of the Apostles, Paul and the Pauline writings were UNKNOWN when Sinaiticus Mark was written.
Even if those texts were not known to the author of Sinaiticus Mark, that does not prove that they were not known to anybody else at that time (whenever it was).
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Old 10-16-2011, 05:31 PM   #113
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Because it’s fiction.
1st century writers didn't think of fiction in the sense that we do.
That there were any 1st century christian writers is probably a fiction.
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Old 10-16-2011, 05:53 PM   #114
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1st century writers didn't think of fiction in the sense that we do.
That there were any 1st century christian writers is probably a fiction.
I should've said ancient writers.
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Old 10-16-2011, 05:54 PM   #115
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....If the statement 'they said nothing to any one' had remained true, then the text in question could not have been written. It may have been true at one time, but at some point somebody must have passed on some information to somebody or the text could never have come to be written.
Your assertion is ILLOGICAL and BASELESS.

1. It is NOT TRUE and ILLOGICAL that "the text in question could not have been written" based on the statement "they said nothing to anyone" since the author himself could have made up the story which NOBODY ever heard BEFORE he wrote it.

2. It is NOT TRUE and ILLOGICAL that "at some point somebody must have passed on some information to somebody" since the author himself may have INVENTED a story that NOBODY ever heard BEFORE he wrote it.
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Old 10-16-2011, 06:15 PM   #116
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Originally Posted by J-D View Post
....If the statement 'they said nothing to any one' had remained true, then the text in question could not have been written. It may have been true at one time, but at some point somebody must have passed on some information to somebody or the text could never have come to be written.
Your assertion is ILLOGICAL and BASELESS.

1. It is NOT TRUE and ILLOGICAL that "the text in question could not have been written" based on the statement "they said nothing to anyone" since the author himself could have made up the story which NOBODY ever heard BEFORE he wrote it.
If the whole story was entirely made up by the author, then the statement 'they said nothing to anyone' would be part of what the author made up and not a historically true statement.
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2. It is NOT TRUE and ILLOGICAL that "at some point somebody must have passed on some information to somebody" since the author himself may have INVENTED a story that NOBODY ever heard BEFORE he wrote it.
If the author invented the story when writing it down, then the writing down of the story for others to read counts as a way of passing it on.
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Old 10-16-2011, 06:20 PM   #117
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Even if those texts were not known to the author of Sinaiticus Mark, that does not prove that they were not known to anybody else at that time (whenever it was).
Your assertion does NOT disturb my theory at all and has NO real value as evidence. You cannot prove what anybody else knew at that time (whenever it was).

I am dealing SPECIFICALLY with the author of Sinaiticus Mark and that he wrote BAD NEWS.

It can be LOGICALLY deduced that Sinaiticus Mark is NOT a Gospel but BAD NEWS of a character that died in Disgrace, Abandoned, Denied and Rejected.

It can therefore be also REASONED that the author wrote BAD NEWS because he did NOT know of any GOSPEL at the the time of writing.

The GOOD NEWS of the resurrection of Jesus was LATER added to other versions of MARK.

ALL writings in the NT Canon with the GOOD NEWS of the RESURRECTION were UNKNOWN to the author of Sinaiticus Mark.

ALL writings, including the Pauline writings, in the Canon with the GOOD NEWS of the resurrection are AFTER Sinaiticus Mark, AFTER the Fall of the Temple.
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Old 10-16-2011, 06:30 PM   #118
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Originally Posted by J-D View Post
Even if those texts were not known to the author of Sinaiticus Mark, that does not prove that they were not known to anybody else at that time (whenever it was).
Your assertion does NOT disturb my theory at all and has NO real value as evidence. You cannot prove what anybody else knew at that time (whenever it was).

I am dealing SPECIFICALLY with the author of Sinaiticus Mark and that he wrote BAD NEWS.

It can be LOGICALLY deduced that Sinaiticus Mark is NOT a Gospel but BAD NEWS of a character that died in Disgrace, Abandoned, Denied and Rejected.

It can therefore be also REASONED that the author wrote BAD NEWS because he did NOT know of any GOSPEL at the the time of writing.

The GOOD NEWS of the resurrection of Jesus was LATER added to other versions of MARK.

ALL writings in the NT Canon with the GOOD NEWS of the RESURRECTION were UNKNOWN to the author of Sinaiticus Mark.
Even if all that is true, so what?
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ALL writings, including the Pauline writings, in the Canon with the GOOD NEWS of the resurrection are AFTER Sinaiticus Mark, AFTER the Fall of the Temple.
You have given no grounds for thinking this true.
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Old 10-16-2011, 06:44 PM   #119
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If the whole story was entirely made up by the author, then the statement 'they said nothing to anyone' would be part of what the author made up and not a historically true statement....
You have now CONFIRMED that your initial assertion was ILLOGICAL and BASELESS. You should have taken into account that the author may have INVENTED a story that was NOT heard BEFORE he wrote it.

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Originally Posted by aa5874 View Post
2. It is NOT TRUE and ILLOGICAL that "at some point somebody must have passed on some information to somebody" since the author himself may have INVENTED a story that NOBODY ever heard BEFORE he wrote it.
Quote:
Originally Posted by J-D
...If the author invented the story when writing it down, then the writing down of the story for others to read counts as a way of passing it on.
Your initial claim was therefore baseless and illogical. You should have taken into account that the author may have INVENTED a story that NOBODY ever heard Before he wrote it.

If the author INVENTED the BAD NEWS story then it is NOT logical that any information was passed on to the author himself.
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Old 10-16-2011, 07:08 PM   #120
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Originally Posted by aa5874
Your assertion does NOT disturb my theory at all and has NO real value as evidence. You cannot prove what anybody else knew at that time (whenever it was).

I am dealing SPECIFICALLY with the author of Sinaiticus Mark and that he wrote BAD NEWS.

It can be LOGICALLY deduced that Sinaiticus Mark is NOT a Gospel but BAD NEWS of a character that died in Disgrace, Abandoned, Denied and Rejected.

It can therefore be also REASONED that the author wrote BAD NEWS because he did NOT know of any GOSPEL at the the time of writing.

The GOOD NEWS of the resurrection of Jesus was LATER added to other versions of MARK.

ALL writings in the NT Canon with the GOOD NEWS of the RESURRECTION were UNKNOWN to the author of Sinaiticus Mark.
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Originally Posted by J-D View Post
Even if all that is true, so what?
You don't even know what you are arguing about.

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Originally Posted by aa5874 View Post
ALL writings, including the Pauline writings, in the Canon with the GOOD NEWS of the resurrection are AFTER Sinaiticus Mark, AFTER the Fall of the Temple.
Quote:
Originally Posted by J-D
You have given no grounds for thinking this true.
Your assertion is BLATANTLY erroneous.

The author of Sinaiticus Mark did write BAD NEWS that Jesus was ABANDONED, DENIED, REJECTED and that the visitors did NOT find his dead body in the EMPTY TOMB.

The Gospel of the RESURRECTION was ADDED LATER.

SINAITICUS MARK is earlier than ALL the BOOKS in the NT CANON with the GOOD NEWS of the resurrection which includes the Pauline writings
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