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06-15-2006, 12:39 PM | #11 |
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How does this pericope relate at all to mythicism? Do all historicists accept this pericope and mythicists reject it, or vice versa? What if the positions were reversed?
To my knowledge there is no ideologically-based variance between mythicists and historicists on it, and no reason for any variance. |
06-15-2006, 12:45 PM | #12 |
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I'm not a mythicist. I think it's interpolated. Which is a majority view. "Mythicists" don't isolate themselves from the scholarly community on this one.
To be sure, there are points where they do so. That whole Jesus not existing thing doesn't seem to sit well with the mainstream (which is rather the point of this thread). The Pericope de Adultera, however, is not one of those points. Far from issuing an idictment against mythicists, you belie your own unfamiliarity with the issue, or rather, your familiarity with only one side of it. Regards, Rick Sumner |
06-15-2006, 12:51 PM | #13 | |
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The question is whether or not mythicists are truly willing to engage in scholarly discussion. I picked the pericope of the adultress as a test case precisely because it has no direct bearing on the mythicist position, yet over it mythicists seem all the same to have isolated themselves from the scholarly community. This is an anomaly that I am trying to fathom. My own opinion is that the pericope is a problem for mythicists because it is a problem for orthodox Christians. Why, if the Gospels were produced for ecclesiastic purposes, would they contain obstacles to those purposes? Clerics didn't like the pericope, as Ambrose attests. Why is it in there, then? I would say, of course, that the reason it is in there is because it is an authentic episode in the life of Christ. I think that mythicists are aware of the argument I make, and therefore deny the validity of the pericope. |
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06-15-2006, 12:53 PM | #14 | |
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Here is my previous post on Ehrman and the pericope. |
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06-15-2006, 01:22 PM | #15 | |
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Stephen |
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06-15-2006, 01:30 PM | #16 | |
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06-15-2006, 01:34 PM | #17 | ||
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06-15-2006, 01:40 PM | #18 | |
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I wonder if No Robots is reading too much into Ehrman's speculation that the adulterous woman had a currency in oral tradition before it was added to John. I know Ehrman doesn't think it's authentic. IIRC, he has explicitly called it "fiction" in public interviews. |
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06-15-2006, 02:55 PM | #19 | |
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He suggests that the story interpolated in John is a conflation of two distinct apocryphal traditions the first mainly witnessed by the Didascalia Apostolorum (and derived church orders) and the second mainly witnessed by Didymus the Blind in one of his recently discovered Old Testament commentaries. Andrew Criddle |
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06-15-2006, 02:55 PM | #20 | |
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