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Old 10-07-2011, 02:48 PM   #611
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Spin is interpreting 3.18.3 as meaning the Marconite version omitted vss 5-11. However, in 3.13.1 Irenaeus quotes vs 11, which is the summary of the appearance section, against Marcion's position, which Spin seems to think is Irenaeus citing the proto-orthodox version as superior to Marcion's version.

The only way to figure out what he is saying is to do the kind of thing I just did above. If more folks did that kind of thing, Spin wouldn't have to be so irascible.

DCH
It still doesn't make sense to me yet, DCH. Not a tiny bit. I'm not saying spin isn't 'reading something', I'm saying that to me at this point, what he's reading is as tenuous as a thin slice of tenuousity pie eaten by King Tenuous IV of Tenuousland, to celebrate National Tenuosity Day. And you're having a slice too, it seems. :]

Basically, there is no good reason to think that's what the text means. Simple as dat.



I'm not saying 5-11 aren't interpolations, btw. I hope it's clear that's not my point at all. It's the 'seeing something in a text without any good reason' which I find quite....well, just plain irrational thinking, to be honest. Same goes for seeing something in the word 'scriptures', as here, on the first page of this thread:

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So the idea of Gospels as "scripture" was something that only started to appear in the second half of the Second Century.
What then do you think of the two references in 1 Cor 15:3 & 4 to "the scriptures"?

(They are obviously not the Hebrew "scriptures", as Paul has focused his proselytes away from Jewish materials and motivations.)

What do you think, DCH?

Please feel free to use the phrase 'highly nuanced' again, at your leisure.


You should read that other thread, btw. It's a good 'un. A few pages before that, Solo implies I am a thick Mick and shows me a mooning smilie in response to my request for him to clarify something he sees in Hebrews 6:2.
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Old 10-07-2011, 02:57 PM   #612
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Gday,

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So why Nazareth then?

Can any mythicist here come up with an answer that supports mythicism and that is backed up by evidence and that destroys the need to ask such a question for the historical Jesus?
It's right there in G.Matthew -

There was a prophecy he would be called the Nazarene.
(A prophecy we don't have copies of anymore.)

But a clear reason to come up with Nazareth WITHOUT being historical - it was a prophecy about Nazaroios / Nazarite or whatever which was then mistook as Nazareth.


K.
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Old 10-07-2011, 03:36 PM   #613
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Because, assuming mythicism, we deserve to know why the author of Mark would made up Nazareth as his hometown instead of Bethlehem knowing what Micah 5:2 says....
What BS!!! The author of gMark NEVER referred to Micah 5.2 and the author of gMark NEVER claimed Jesus was NOT born in Bethlehem.

We DEMAND to know why you continue to promote the logical fallacy that the Jesus of gMark MUST be born in Nazareth when it is in a Canon where it is claimed the same Jesus was BORN in Bethlehem and LATER went to live in Nazareth.

You have NO source OUTSIDE the NT to show that the Jesus of gMark was born in Nazareth. You have NO claim INSIDE the NT that the Jesus of gMark was NOT Born in Bethlehem.

HJ of Nazareth is a product of LOGICAL fallacies.

It is illogical that the Jesus of gMark was born in Nazareth simply based on a story that he lived in Nazareth for an UNKNOWN time.

In gMark, there is NO statement about where Jesus was born.

HJers SPECULATE that Jesus of gMark was born in Nazareth and have demonstrated again and again that they think the very NT is UNRELIABLE and are forced to INVENT their history of HJ from their imagination.
Oh, God ...

Strawman arguments. Full of it.
You are making yourself look real bad. Do you understand that people now know that are have no intention of resolving the HJ/MJ argument?

You are just wasting time here. You have ZERO idea what a strawman argument is.

It is illogical that the Markan Jesus must be born in Nazareth because the place is mentioned.

It is illogical to ASSUME that the Markan Jesus story is not about the same character in gLuke and gMatthew of the same Canon that was claimed to have been born in Bethlehem.

Unless the author of Canonised gMark claimed his Jesus was NOT born in Bethlehem then it is reasonable to assume that the Synoptic Jesus is the story of Jesus that was claimed to be born in Bethlehem.

Once you argue that the Markan Jesus was born in Nazareth then the Gospels are UNRELIABLE and you MUST provide corroboration for every character and event found in gMark.

There is ZERO corroboration for HJ of Nazareth anywhere in ALL EXTANT writings of antiquity.
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Old 10-07-2011, 04:07 PM   #614
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Kapy:

Your explanation holds no water:

The most important problem with your answer is that in fact there is no prophesy that the Messiah would be called a Nazarene. Ask anyone who can read the Hebrew Bible in Hebrew. Matthew's claim about the prophesy is one he made up to make the man Jesus look like the Messiah.

The second problem is that the town of Nazareth does not appear in the Hebrew scripture.

There are words that are similar to Nazarene if you have no idea what they mean, one means branch and one means a person consecrated to God, but neither carry any implication about the town Nazareth.

It is a fact that the author of Matthew tried valiantly and unsuccessfully to find references to the Man Jesus in the Hebrew Bible. He did that by claiming that there was a prophesy that Jesus the Messiah would be called a Nazarene thereby capitalizing on the mundane fact that Jesus came from Nazareth. Only Christians are fooled by that.

You can of course prove me wrong by showing me where in the Hebrew Bible it says that the Messiah will be a Nazarene.

Steve
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Old 10-07-2011, 04:27 PM   #615
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I think the bigger question is what Mark wanted ναζαρετ to symbolize. Was this a necropolis in Galilee, in Mark's time ? (B. Bagatti, Excavations in Nazareth, 1969; Rene Salm, Nazareth, 2007). Was it well known ? Was the mention of Nazareth as the place Jesus was coming from, just a way of saying he came to John tο be baptized ηγερθη απο των νεκρων (as one risen from the dead) ?

(Remember, I believe that the gospel of Mark was circular. The conjunction 'gar' in 16:8 was shared and connecting back to 1:1, which originally started , εν αρχη του ευαγγελιου )

Best,
Jiri
Nothing but ad hoc speculating.
I take it you wish to dispute the finding of kokim tombs at Nazareth attested by the two books I cited. I will be much obliged for any archeological source that you can provide to support your opinion.

Jiri
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Old 10-07-2011, 04:46 PM   #616
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....It is a fact that the author of Matthew tried valiantly and unsuccessfully to find references to the Man Jesus in the Hebrew Bible. He did that by claiming that there was a prophesy that Jesus the Messiah would be called a Nazarene thereby capitalizing on the mundane fact that Jesus came from Nazareth. Only Christians are fooled by that...
What nonsense you post. Your methodology is CRAP. You use Ghost stories for the history of your HJ of Nazareth.

May I remind you that it was the Child of a Ghost that lived in Nazareth in the Gospels.

If EVERYBODY associated with Jesus in the story knew he was really BORN in Nazareth then it makes absolutely no sense for the authors of gMatthew and gLuke to Blatantly knowingly lie.

Please, tell us what does it benefit the authors to LIE about Jesus when everyone knew they were lying?

You just don't make any sense.

Authors claimed the Child of a Ghost was born in Bethlehem and lived in Nazareth and Juststeve thinks that the story was invented and that he KNOWS the story based on his own imagination.

How illogical!!!!

HJers have fooled themselves into believing that the Ghost stories in the NT CONTAIN the history of a man when the authors made sure their Jesus ACTED like a Ghost and was also described as a Ghost.

Why don't HJers accept that they were fooled?
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Old 10-07-2011, 05:05 PM   #617
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Gday,

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If Jesus is simply a made up Messiah, why associate Nazareth with the Messiah instead of Bethlehem itself? It would've served the theological purpose much much better than Nazareth ever could.
Jesus was NOT simply a "made up Messiah".
Please pay attention
:-)


K.
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Old 10-07-2011, 05:52 PM   #618
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We have a thread for discussion right here.

spin? What's so special about him?:huh:
There are about a dozen folks who consistently posted meaty, well thought-out posts, over the past several years. Spin is one of them. He has investigated and thought out every position he takes, so is not shooting from the hip like many here do.

He also has little patience with those who so shoot. He hasn't been very active here recently, directing his satirical wit towards even crazier crazies than we have here, on other rationalist/sceptic forums, having already vanquished in his own beady mind those crazies who reside here. :devil:

DCH
So what am I supposed to do? Worship him as God?
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Old 10-07-2011, 06:03 PM   #619
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Why reinvent the wheel? Why post the same arguments that have been posted before?

My point - find something new to say on this topic. People have made your argument before, others have not found it convincing. People have made much more sophisticated arguments than yours, and others are still not convinced.
Tell me, Toto. Why does it bother you that I'm asking you guys for an effective answer?

I checked that thread you linked me to. Basically a rehash of this current one with the exception of spin acting all cool and pro.

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Your argument comes down to your personal inability to imagine why Mark or Matthew would have invented a particular detail in a narrative that is full of improbabilities and impossibilities and obvious fiction. This is hardly the slam dunk proof of a historical figure that you imagine.
It's not slam dunk proof. Proof is a strong word on its own, so to add slam dunk to it makes it even more extreme.

No, I believe the question I'm asking is a good argument for the HJ. The fact that none of you mythicists have come up with a better answer than the historicist's (better as in simpler and more in line with the evidence) means something.

Quote:
Quote:
spin? What's so special about him?:huh:
He reads the NT in the original Koine Greek, instead of relying on a biased translation that makes Jesus the Nazarene into Jesus of Nazareth. He has a background in linguistics. He has investigated the textual variants.

But he has turned his attention lately to the environmental crisis (how's the weather down there in Oz?), so I don't expect him to post in this thread.
His knowledge of the Greek means nothing if he doesn't apply it properly.

And why aren't you convinced by his position if he's not a mythicist?
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Old 10-07-2011, 06:05 PM   #620
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My point - find something new to say on this topic. People have made your argument before, others have not found it convincing. People have made much more sophisticated arguments than yours, and others are still not convinced.

Your argument comes down to your personal inability to imagine why Mark or Matthew would have invented a particular detail in a narrative that is full of improbabilities and impossibilities and obvious fiction. This is hardly the slam dunk proof of a historical figure that you imagine.
If in doubt about the question, attempt to undermine the asker, and throw in a strawman about slam dunk proof. Where have I seen that before?

:constern01:
Yep, that's what I noticed in that post of his.
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