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#141 |
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But not nearly as-off putting as presumptuousness, neh?
I think it is pretty clear that Josephus, Tacitus, Suetonius and probably most of the Early Church father's works have been compromised and cannot be used either to support a historical Jesus, nor to debunk. This is not news. Manuscripts of any kind were somewhat of a rarety in the first c. Any that may have had anything about a historical Jesus would most likely have fallen into the hands of the Early Church, and would have had to have been cleansed of anything that would not supported dogma, or redacted for support. The premise of this thread, that the lack of mention of the name "Jesus" in these compromised writings somehow supports the theory that Jesus never existed is as ludicrous as saying that these works support a historical Jesus. Being compromised, they support neither position. |
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#142 | ||
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#143 | ||
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People based their assessments on the information presented to them. So based on the extant information that there is so far, there was no Jesus Christ, no Jesus the Messiah, before the Pliny lettes to Trajan. No writer that mentioned Christians up to the Pliny letters mentioned Jesus the Christ or Jesus the Messiah. Quote:
Well that is exactly what happened. Suetonius, Tacitus and Pliny mentioned Christians and did not write a single word about Jesus the Christ. It is therefore reasonable to conclude that JESUS the Christ or Messiah was not known to be associated with Christians up to the time of the Pliny letters. And it is even more obvious that Jesus the Christ was unknown by Pliny, he appears to have no idea who Christians believed in. And after confessions and torture, no-one still mentioned Jesus. The writings of Josephus, Suetonius, Tacitus and Pliny can be used to debunk Jesus the Christ. |
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#144 | ||||||
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#145 | ||
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#146 | |
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Sincerely, Chaucer |
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#147 | ||||
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I repeat. You cannot prove that Josephus, Pliny, Tacitus and Suetonius have been compromised to the point where they cannot be used to DEBUNK the existence of the NT Jesus. Now, please tell me what was originally in Josephus, Suetonius, Tacitus and Pliny about Jesus. He either existed in some form or another or he didn't exist at all. All that supports his existence is suspect. Logically that is all I HAVE to admit. Quote:
We have the writings of Josephus, Suetonius, Tacitus and Pliny and Jesus is not found in them except for forgeries in Josephus. There is REALLY no need to speculate. Based on your view, we might as well just discard all sources of antiquity and just guess. Quote:
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Jesus of the NT was not mentioned by Pliny, Suetonius and Tacitus even though they mentioned Christians, and this is true even after confessions and torture as in the case of Pliny. It is reasonable to deduce that Jesus the Messiah was not known to be associated with Christians up to the time of Pliny, he himself did not show any prior knowledge of Christian beliefs or who they worshipped, even though Jesus was claimed to have existed for about 100 years before Pliny with thousands of followers and churches all over the Roman Empuire. |
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#148 | |
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#149 | ||
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Now you can't have it both ways: This aspect of the exchange started because some tried to suggest that Josephus would never use such a term casually. Then when we have some other writer provably doing just that -- and it doesn't matter in this context if it's really Tacitus or another -- that's suddenly expected because it fits with the tone. Well -- duh! Yes, it fits with the tone. And it fits with the tone of a piece written in the first decade of the second century, while Josephus was written in either the last or penultimate decade of the first century. You can't have it one way with one and another way with the other. They're too close together. Either stooges of the Roman Empire were accustomed to using the "Christ" term casually, or they weren't. Regardless of who wrote the Tacitus passage, the adoption of such a casual tone with this term shows that it was accepted as a Roman thing to throw the term around quite casually. Chaucer |
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If you want to continue responding regarding this passage in Tacitus, you should at least deal with what it says in its context and how it fits (or doesn't fit) in its current location. Why does Tacitus an ex-consul and proconsul, who has shown in his texts that he knows all about Roman administration and when procurators were first used in Judea, call Pontius Pilate a "procurator" when he obviously wasn't? Why does he conclude his attack against Nero by changing subject onto christians?? You can see the abrupt transition. ...Battery's low. Gotta go... ![]() spin |
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