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Old 02-10-2009, 10:15 AM   #341
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Salvation is a big topic with a variety of interpretations. Nevertheless, Paul speaks of salvation as the promise of a future resurrection into a spiritual body. I don't see how this is confusing or that it conflicts with anything else I have said.
How salvation was achieved would explain the message being preached and how it was confused for a historical figure. It’s not confusing it just doesn’t look thought out on what you are suggesting if you don’t understand the nature of the salvation or how it was achieved.
Ok, try that again without the obscurantism. What is your point here?

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Salvation is, of course, a specifically Christian concept (albeit with links to the concept of 'deliverance' in Judaism). However, there are theories that Dionysian ideas had a widespread influence in the period on Christian and even Jewish ideas. One of the major stories around which Dionysian worship was based involved Dionysos going through a death and resurrection. Justin Martyr certainly saw a strong connection between Dionysus (or Bacchus in Roman religion) and the story of Jesus:
http://www.earlychristianwritings.co...guetrypho.html
So it’s just speculation on the nature of Dionysos’ understanding of salvation?
That sounds like a bit of a non-sequitur to me. I am saying that just because there are similar stories to that of Jesus which are used as the centrepiece for religious movements and involve a central figure. I don't see why we should presume that any of these religious figures are based on a historical figure.

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The Justin passage doesn’t relate the nature of the salvation that Bacchus is involved with to Jesus.
I'm not sure how you mean to justify that statement. I can only presume that you believe that virginal mother, usage of wine in both Christian and Dionysian ritual and resurrection all have nothing to do with salvation:

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For when they tell that Bacchus, son of Jupiter, was begotten by[Jupiter's] intercourse with Semele, and that he was the discoverer of the vine; and when they relate, that being torn in pieces, and having died, he rose again, and ascended to heaven; and when they introduce wine into his mysteries, do I not perceive that[the devil] has imitated the prophecy announced by the patriarch Jacob, and recorded by Moses?

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Added later than what? Which part of the story am I expected to take as historical?
What is historically possible for you. If you have a problem with Pilate being there then feel free to assume it’s a later legend added in. All I concern myself with is the self sacrifice and getting your followers to try and do the same that spread the message, everything else is irrelevant to me.
Something being plausible isn't enough to make it historically true. You cannot continue to excuse anything dodgy by calling it "a later legend added in" indefinitely. You need to explain why, in a story filled with clear elements of fiction, you are deciding arbitrarily to choose certain elements as historical. Many parts of the Illiad are plausible, but that doesn't make Achilles a historical figure...

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Yes I blooming well can confidently assert that the Romans did not release known murderers. The gospels claim that it was an established tradition and, once again, there's no mention of this tradition outside of the gospels, but what's more it is completely contrary to the way we know the Roman government to have acted. What we do have evidence for is Pilate saying 'yes' or 'no' to the requests for capital punishment from Rome rather than going to Jerusalem to make the decision. If Jesus is unmentioned outside the gospels and later Romans during the period of early Christianity mistakenly believe the name of the Christian saviour to be 'Christus' (presuming the Tacitus source to be genuine), how can we possibly assert that Jesus was high profile enough to cause concern for Pilate? The whole thing is absurd.
I just don’t think you have any way to know that with any certainty. We just don’t have enough information about 2000 years ago and that situation to make claims like that.
This is beginning to sound rather similar to a defence of homeopathy. There is no evidence outside the Bible of any tradition of setting known murderers free. Considering the patently obvious bias of the gospel writers, where is the lack of certainty here. If there was such a tradition there would be other sources corroborating it.

If you think there's not enough certainty on this issue, you might as well give up on historical analysis altogether.

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If references to prominent historical figures are late additions, doesn't that increase the likelihood that the story is wholly mythical?
Not if the exact history of the actual man is unknown and needs to be filled in with names they do know, but you would need to show they were later additions.
So let's get this straight. Your argument that the story is not wholly mythical is based on the assumption that the gospel writers had absolutely no idea what happened during Jesus' life. Considering that the Biblical records are the only surviving documents close to the supposed time of Jesus' life, on what basis are we to presume that anyone knew anything about Jesus' life and that he even lived a life in the first place?

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I'm confused. We are told that Jesus had a huge following in Jerusalem and you want me to tell you who should have noticed? Anyone, that's who! If Jesus wasn't the focus of devotion for one of the the most popular religions of the past two millenia, you would be demanding some evidence asides from these clearly mythical scriptures.
You don't seem to realise the extent of your bias here. You seem to imagine that we cannot reasonably expect the actions of a proclaimed messiah to be recorded in Jerusalem during this time. We have accounts of several other messiahs and yet in all the documents surrounding the supposed time of Jesus' life no one mentions Jesus. Considering this complete absence of corroborating evidence, you still want to insist that Jesus was a real person. Why?
Again. A list of names and texts that you think should have mentioned Jesus. It’s an unreasonable expectation to think that Jesus should have been mentioned more than he was in other texts if you can’t produce the texts he should have been mentioned in. I don’t think it’s my bias here, I think you’re just repeating the evidence mantra around here without examining if there really is a lack of evidence of Jesus or just a lack of evidence all together from that time and area.
I mentioned Josephus and you haven't answered that yet. Why should I go to find any more names? I'd like to see you actually try justifying your position for a change.
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Old 02-10-2009, 10:22 AM   #342
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Are you telling me that Paul never mentions Jesus? If he mentions Jesus, does he ever use the name Jesus in regards to people he persecuted?
I am telling you that the writer called Paul used the words Jesus, Christ, Jesus Christ, Christ Jesus, the son of God and our Lord and Saviour hundreds of time referring to the same creature.
Naturally Paul believed that Jesus was the messiah and would thus be happy to use that title to describe Jesus. However, what I am asking is whether he asserts that the people he persecuted believed in Jesus or just in 'the messiah'.

If you can find clear evidence that Paul thought they believed in Jesus in particular then fair enough, but my point is that it shouldn't be taken for granted.


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Now tell me when did the writer called Paul believe those things you think he believed? In the 1st, 2nd, 3rd or 4th century?
Paul's writings are dated back to the 1st century aren't they? I didn't think that was controversial. No one's going to pretend to be Paul before he was born, are they?

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Personally, I think that these verses just show that Paul felt that his conversion had divine origin, but if Paul really only ever claims those he persecuted to believe in 'Christ' (greek word for messiah) and not 'Jesus', the specific object of devotion for Paul, then I think Spin has an interesting and compelling theory.
A theory is not really compelling based on "feelings".
Ok, a compelling hypothesis then.
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Old 02-10-2009, 10:27 AM   #343
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Personally, I think that these verses just show that Paul felt that his conversion had divine origin, but if Paul really only ever claims those he persecuted to believe in 'Christ' (greek word for messiah) and not 'Jesus', the specific object of devotion for Paul, then I think Spin has an interesting and compelling theory.
Have you seen any historical evidence that those he persecuted were christian?
None of them would be Christian because 'Christianity' didn't exist yet.

What I found interesting about your argument was the ambiguity as to whether the people he persecuted were followers of Jesus.

Nevertheless, the verses you cited as evidence that Paul made it all up could just as easily (it seems to me) be interpreted as meaning that Paul believed his conversion had divine origin. It appears to me that Paul is claiming that he was not converted by any person, but that doesn't instantly mean that he was never told about Jesus by any person.
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Old 02-10-2009, 10:37 AM   #344
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Have you seen any historical evidence that those he persecuted were christian?
None of them would be Christian because 'Christianity' didn't exist yet.
Umm, yeah. Try to ask yourself what was meant. You might realize you could have saved a pair of posts.
Have you seen any historical evidence that those he persecuted were believers in a Pauline-like savior/messiah called Jesus?
Ya wanna try again?

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What I found interesting about your argument was the ambiguity as to whether the people he persecuted were followers of Jesus.
That's what I was asking you about.

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Nevertheless, the verses you cited as evidence that Paul made it all up could just as easily (it seems to me) be interpreted as meaning that Paul believed his conversion had divine origin. It appears to me that Paul is claiming that he was not converted by any person, but that doesn't instantly mean that he was never told about Jesus by any person.
Are you also saying that, when Paul claims he didn't get his Jesus gospel from any other person, he wasn't correct?


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Old 02-10-2009, 10:58 AM   #345
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Are you also saying that, when Paul claims he didn't get his Jesus gospel from any other person, he wasn't correct?
Here's what you quoted earlier:
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11 .. I would have you know, brethren, that the gospel which was preached by me is not according to man. 12 For I neither received it from man, nor was I taught it, but I received it through a revelation of Jesus Christ.
The problem is that Paul saying that he didn't 'receive' it from man, doesn't mean that no man ever mentioned it. 'Received' could be referring to his conversion rather than simply being told something (i.e. the theme within Christian texts of 'hearing' the word of God).

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15 .. God, who had set me apart even from my mother’s womb and called me through His grace, was pleased 16 to reveal His Son to me so that I might preach Him among the Gentiles
This is even less compelling than the other quotation. Plenty of Christians to this day claim that God's son was 'revealed to them'. That doesn't mean that no human ever told them about it.
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Old 02-10-2009, 11:00 AM   #346
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I am telling you that the writer called Paul used the words Jesus, Christ, Jesus Christ, Christ Jesus, the son of God and our Lord and Saviour hundreds of time referring to the same creature.
Naturally Paul believed that Jesus was the messiah and would thus be happy to use that title to describe Jesus. However, what I am asking is whether he asserts that the people he persecuted believed in Jesus or just in 'the messiah'.

If you can find clear evidence that Paul thought they believed in Jesus in particular then fair enough, but my point is that it shouldn't be taken for granted.
The writer called Paul wrote that he persecuted the faith that he now preached[/b].

What "faith" was the writer called Paul preaching? If you find out the faith of the writer called Paul, you will find out who he persecuted.

1 Corinthians1.23
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But we preach Christ crucified, unto the Jews a stumblingblock, and unto the Greeks foolishness.
2Cor 4:5 -
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For we preach not ourselves, but Christ Jesus the Lord; and ourselves your servants for Jesus' sake.
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Now tell me when did the writer called Paul believe those things you think he believed? In the 1st, 2nd, 3rd or 4th century?
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Paul's writings are dated back to the 1st century aren't they? I didn't think that was controversial. No one's going to pretend to be Paul before he was born, are they?
How was the date arrived at? And didn't people pretend to be Paul? Who pretended to write the letter with the name Paul as found in Timothy or Romans?

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A theory is not really compelling based on "feelings".
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Ok, a compelling hypothesis then.
Ok, a hypothesis based on imagination.
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Old 02-10-2009, 11:18 AM   #347
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Where does Paul indicate that the Jerusalem group had any beliefs about Jesus?
If you mean "conceptualized beliefs about risen Jesus", I would say "nowhere". But if you mean beliefs that connect the Son revealed to Paul to whatever they actually did believe about Jesus (martyr of the last days ? intercessor ? high priest who sits with God ?) I would say 3:1 would be a great "indicator".
Gal 3:1 is about Galatians, whose belief in Paul's religion of his crucified savior Jesus had been shaken by apparently outside people who were not interested in Jesus but in submission to the law. These latter in Paul's eyes he asks about rhetorically "who beguiled you?" "What, are you abandoning Jesus, who was presented as crucified before your own eyes?"

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Obviously, if Paul references in Galatians the Jerusalem group (which I believe had its "Jesus" wing around the "pillars"); then they are the bewitchers of his flock, and preaching some other Jesus to it.
The "some other Jesus" rhetoric was for the Corinthians and inappropriate in the case of the Galatians. The conflict was between belief in Paul's savior/messiah and his opponents' requirement of torah compliance. It would seem that Paul's Galatians were wavering towards torah compliance.

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The use of "church" here to translate ekklhsia seems anachronistic. Surely it's safer to use the more neutral "assembly". One first has to establish that the people in the assembly were Jesus believers before you can call the group a church. I think the translations are in the error of anachronism.
I have no problem with your using "assembly" instead of "church", spin.
That's positive. There are a number of terminological difficulties, such as when Paul uses "christ" unqualified in this letter does the term necessarily mean Jesus or the messiah of Jewish messianic expectation? He would have tended to think that the two were one, but what about his opponents?


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Old 02-10-2009, 11:25 AM   #348
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Ok, try that again without the obscurantism. What is your point here?
I’m trying to figure out what you are suggesting about the nature of the salvation here or if you are just recycling some ideas you’ve heard that aren’t supported.
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That sounds like a bit of a non-sequitur to me. I am saying that just because there are similar stories to that of Jesus which are used as the centrepiece for religious movements and involve a central figure. I don't see why we should presume that any of these religious figures are based on a historical figure.
The point I was making was that comparing the salvation of Jesus to the salvation of Dionysus is irrational if you don’t have any sources to site the understanding of salvation that Dionysus was known for.

Yes there are similar stories to Jesus out there but that doesn’t help with you demonstrating a mythical origin.

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I'm not sure how you mean to justify that statement. I can only presume that you believe that virginal mother, usage of wine in both Christian and Dionysian ritual and resurrection all have nothing to do with salvation:
No I don’t. Why do you? What is your understanding of the salvation brought by Jesus?
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Something being plausible isn't enough to make it historically true. You cannot continue to excuse anything dodgy by calling it "a later legend added in" indefinitely. You need to explain why, in a story filled with clear elements of fiction, you are deciding arbitrarily to choose certain elements as historical. Many parts of the Illiad are plausible, but that doesn't make Achilles a historical figure.
I’m sure sometime I will be involved in a conversation here that tries to explain the reasoning behind why certain stories of Jesus were told but mainly it’s just going to be because they were trying to sell him as the Messiah and if you understand that then why there are so many outrageous tales told about him shouldn’t surprise you at all but be completely expected.
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This is beginning to sound rather similar to a defence of homeopathy. There is no evidence outside the Bible of any tradition of setting known murderers free. Considering the patently obvious bias of the gospel writers, where is the lack of certainty here. If there was such a tradition there would be other sources corroborating it.
You would need such an enormous amount of evidence to make that claim that I just don’t see it as possible. To say Rome executed criminal would take evidence of that, to say Rome never let a criminal go would need an enormous amount more information that just isn’t possible to provide unless you are actually living in the time.
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If you think there's not enough certainty on this issue, you might as well give up on historical analysis altogether.
Never considered it for a career.
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So let's get this straight. Your argument that the story is not wholly mythical is based on the assumption that the gospel writers had absolutely no idea what happened during Jesus' life. Considering that the Biblical records are the only surviving documents close to the supposed time of Jesus' life, on what basis are we to presume that anyone knew anything about Jesus' life and that he even lived a life in the first place?
No I was giving that to you as a possible way to understand it, if you can’t handle Pilot being there.
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I mentioned Josephus and you haven't answered that yet. Why should I go to find any more names? I'd like to see you actually try justifying your position for a change.
Lol. Josephus has a mention of Jesus. An admittedly altered/added mention but a mention none the less so he can’t really be used as an example of silence. Is Josephus it? Can we move on past the “there should be information about Jesus” part?
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Old 02-10-2009, 11:26 AM   #349
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Are you also saying that, when Paul claims he didn't get his Jesus gospel from any other person, he wasn't correct?
Here's what you quoted earlier: [Gal 1:11-12]

The problem is that Paul saying that he didn't 'receive' it from man, doesn't mean that no man ever mentioned it. 'Received' could be referring to his conversion rather than simply being told something (i.e. the theme within Christian texts of 'hearing' the word of God).
He also says: "nor was I taught it."

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15 .. God, who had set me apart even from my mother’s womb and called me through His grace, was pleased 16 to reveal His Son to me so that I might preach Him among the Gentiles
This is even less compelling than the other quotation. Plenty of Christians to this day claim that God's son was 'revealed to them'. That doesn't mean that no human ever told them about it.
Read in conjunction with the earlier verse, we see that the revelation included the introduction of Jesus to Paul as well as the gospel message.

Paul then went off for three years, not contacting any knowledgeable person (1:17-18).

What in Galatians makes you think that Paul got any ideas from anyone else about Jesus?


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Old 02-10-2009, 12:56 PM   #350
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If you can find clear evidence that Paul thought they believed in Jesus in particular then fair enough, but my point is that it shouldn't be taken for granted.
The writer called Paul wrote that he persecuted the faith that he now preached.
Can you find that reference for me?

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What "faith" was the writer called Paul preaching? If you find out the faith of the writer called Paul, you will find out who he persecuted.
You are pursuing the wrong angle here. You give me lots of verses about what Paul believed, but I already knew that Paul believed Jesus was the messiah. The question was whether there was anything to show that the people Paul was persecuting believed that. Apparently you have evidence that the people Paul was persecuting believed the same thing he did, so if you can just show me that reference it would clear this whole thing up.

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How was the date arrived at? And didn't people pretend to be Paul? Who pretended to write the letter with the name Paul as found in Timothy or Romans?
You've written a bit more about this since the post of mine you were replying to here and I must admit I find this idea very interesting.

I always presumed at least some of the writings in the New Testament were dated through the age of the manuscripts, but now I come to think of it I'm sure I remember reading that we don't actually have any original manuscripts of any of the New Testament texts. Is that right?
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