Freethought & Rationalism ArchiveThe archives are read only. |
|
|
Thread Tools | Search this Thread |
07-16-2004, 01:00 PM | #71 |
Veteran Member
Join Date: Jul 2001
Location: the reliquary of Ockham's razor
Posts: 4,035
|
Hi Rick,
It's good to know that you're alive! You said: "All works of fiction have characeristic X, where all works that aren't fiction do not have characteristic X. The gospels have characteristic X." I. "All works of fiction have characteristic X" translates into "If A is a work of fiction, A has characteristic X." II. "All works that aren't fiction do not have characteristic X" translates into "If A is not a work of fiction, A does not have characteristic X." That is, ~F(A) -> ~X(A). This equates to X(A) -> F(A). That is, "If A has characteristic X, then A is a work of fiction." Or, "All works with characteristic X are works of fiction." The assertion in II can be used to make a valid argument for fictionality. For example, suppose that the characteristic is "the work takes place entirely on Mars." And the assertion is "All works that aren't fiction do not take place entirely on Mars." Or in other words, "All works that take place entirely on Mars are works of fiction." With the other premise that "the work takes place entirely on Mars," the conclusion follows that "it is a work of fiction." But the statement in I is neither necessary nor sufficient for making an argument for fictionality. Suppose the statement is "All works of fiction have more than five words." Well, suppose we have a work with 1000 words. Without any more information, it could be a work of fiction. Then again, it could be non-fiction. There would be no way to tell based on a word count. (Well, it could go the other way: based on the assertion, a work with four words would definitely not be a work of fiction...again, per the assertion.) So this is something to keep in mind when constructing an argument of this type. Of course this is kind of off the title subject. best, Peter Kirby |
07-16-2004, 01:08 PM | #72 | |
Veteran Member
Join Date: Jul 2001
Location: the reliquary of Ockham's razor
Posts: 4,035
|
Quote:
The argument above reads: 1. If a work is unreliable as history, the work contains claims that cannot be confirmed by other sources. 2. 'The Gospels' contain claims that cannot be confirmed by other sources. 3. Therefore, 'The Gospels' are unreliable as history. This is a fallacy known as affirming the consequent. In symbols it is: R="Reliable" (~R="unreliable as history"). C="Confirmed" (~C="cannot be confirmed by other sources"). 1. ~R -> ~C 2. ~C 3. Therefore, ~R The fallacy is discussed here: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Affirming_the_consequent and here: http://www.infidels.org/news/atheism...tml#consequent Of course, you may have meant something other than what my reading of your argument indicates. If so I would welcome a reformulation of the argument. best, Peter Kirby |
|
07-16-2004, 02:10 PM | #73 |
Junior Member
Join Date: Jun 2004
Location: WI
Posts: 44
|
Ok. Christ was alive c30. The documents had to be written around that time in order to be reliable which they, of course, are. When they were written, nobody contradicted what they said, which is significant because enemys of Jesus would want to bring Him down. Therefore, the records must be written during a lifetime while people are still remembering Christ.
We know that Matt. wrote Matt. etc. Acts (written by Paul) doesn't record Peter and Pauls deaths (c. 67AD), the fire in Rome (64 AD) and the destruction of the temple (70 AD). These are important events fo rPXians, so you'd think they'd be included. Unless, it was finished before the mid-60s. Luke must have been written before. Paul quotes from Luke and calls it Scripture. So Luke existed before Acts. The excepted theory is that Mark was written first, then Matt., and then Luke. Hope this helps. |
07-16-2004, 02:34 PM | #74 | |
Contributor
Join Date: Jun 2000
Location: Los Angeles area
Posts: 40,549
|
Quote:
We don't know that Jesus was alive in 30 CE. We don't know that the gospels are reliable, or that Jesus had enemies who would want to bring him down, or that Matt wrote Matt. We are pretty sure that Paul did not write Acts. Paul does not quote from Luke. |
|
07-16-2004, 09:58 PM | #75 | |
Veteran Member
Join Date: Nov 2003
Location: Eagle River, Alaska
Posts: 7,816
|
Quote:
~R = ~C Is that the same thing as "affirming the consequent"? I'm better with words than mathematical symbols. I think the flaw has more to do with overgeneralization since even a single unconfirmable claim would render the entire text unreliable. That doesn't seem fair. I think we have to address each claim within a given text individually and, if a claim cannot be confirmed (or, to be a little more realistic, how about "supported"?), the claim cannot be relied upon as historical. If a text contains claims that cannot be supported by other sources, those claims cannot be relied upon as history. The Gospels contain claims that cannot be supported by other sources. Therefore, the Gospels contain claims that cannot be relied upon as history. To be honest, I think this is a bit simplistic but it avoids getting into the messy differences between claims such as those that assert nothing outside common experience versus those that assert unique events, etc. |
|
07-16-2004, 10:17 PM | #76 | ||||||
Veteran Member
Join Date: Nov 2003
Location: Eagle River, Alaska
Posts: 7,816
|
Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
We don't find evidence of the extant texts being associated with the names Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John until the 2nd century but most scholars consider the texts to have been originally anonymous. Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
|
||||||
07-17-2004, 04:01 AM | #77 | ||
Veteran Member
Join Date: Feb 2001
Location: ""
Posts: 3,863
|
Rick,
Quote:
Quote:
|
||
07-17-2004, 06:26 AM | #78 | |
Veteran Member
Join Date: Mar 2003
Location: Calgary, Alberta Canada
Posts: 2,612
|
Quote:
Fair enough, I phrased it badly. But the point I was trying to make still holds--a characteristic(s) needs to be established that is exclusive to fiction in order for claims that the gospels are fictitious writings--that the authors did not intend them to be taken literally--to hold up. Regards, Rick Sumner |
|
07-17-2004, 06:33 AM | #79 | ||
Veteran Member
Join Date: Mar 2003
Location: Calgary, Alberta Canada
Posts: 2,612
|
Quote:
Paul wrote relatively few letters, given the length of his career. Quote:
You can't gauge such intent by veracity, except in obvious instances, such as blatant caricature or satire. Here, in a nutshell, is where we're at: You: They were writing literary fiction. Me: I don't believe that. Show me what evidence indicates they did not expect it to be taken literally. You: ? Regards, Rick Sumner |
||
07-17-2004, 06:37 AM | #80 | |
Veteran Member
Join Date: Mar 2003
Location: Calgary, Alberta Canada
Posts: 2,612
|
Quote:
Yet how large a role does this play in 2Cor? How large a role does it play in Paul's letters in general? Is that role large enough to reasonably conclude that it should have been a defining characteristic of Paul's career? Is letter writing a defining characteristic of any of his contemporaries careers? I've waited some time now for an answer to the latter, it's beginning to look like a "no." Regards, Rick Sumner |
|
Thread Tools | Search this Thread |
|