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Old 06-18-2006, 05:15 AM   #171
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Quote:
Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
You are simply reading into the text what you want to see in it. 1 Corinthians 15:23 absolutely does not say that Christ is the first instance of the kind of resurrection that is to come. The text says, literally: “But each one in his own order, Christ the firstfruit, afterward the ones (belonging to Christ) when he comes at the Parousia.” All the text is saying is that Christ’s resurrection has preceded that of the believer, who will be resurrected when he comes at the End-time. There is nothing to imply or require, here or anywhere else, that Christ had a perishable body when he died.
This ignores the force of the firstfruits metaphor. The firstfruits do not only precede the rest of the harvest in time, but they are of the same stuff. Paul is implying not only that Christ is first in line for the resurrection, but that Christ's resurrection is similar in kind to that of the Corinithians.

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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
But how can he do this? How can he go on to offer the last Adam, Christ, as the prototype for the resurrected body of Christians? For Christ himself, when on earth, would have possessed a body not of heavenly material but of earthly stuff, the same as Adam’s. If Paul’s term “man” as applied to Christ refers to the man Jesus of Nazareth—which most scholars declare it does—this ruins everything, for that man did not possess a spiritual body but one made of the same, physical, material which Christians are now composed of. It would be absolutely necessary for Paul to clarify things.
This is a poor argument from silence. Basically, you are saying that Paul would disrupt his neat rhetorical scheme in order to make a pedantic point.

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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
But a mind as precise and comprehensive as Paul’s would not have left this ambiguity hanging in the air, especially when it could have been dealt with in little more than a phrase.
This is inconsistent with previous arguments that you made. Paul is supposedly precise, yet according to you, he refers to the realm of fleshly spirits with oblique terms like kata sarka that have no linguistic history of having meant "in the realm of fleshly spirits."

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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
How could Jesus serve as a model if his own resurrection experience doesn’t fit Paul’s presentation of things? The very fact—according to the Gospel story—that Jesus had risen from flesh to flesh would present a glaring anomaly with the pattern of resurrection that Paul is setting up in this passage, and would have to be dealt with.
Except that the post-resurrection body of Jesus appears and disappears at will and is not immediately recognizable as Jesus. The gospels describe this body as "flesh and bones," but they are equally clear that this body is not like his old one. Both Paul and the gospels agree that the resurrection body is an imperishable body that has different properties from the original. The main difference between them is semantic: The gospels are willing to describe such a body as being flesh, though obviously of a different kind than the corruptible flesh that we know, while Paul prefers to reserve "flesh" as meaning something corruptible, and uses other terms to describe the resurrection body, using soma to imply the body's solidity.

Also, the word "physical" in the translations of 1 Cor. 15 is somewhat misleading, as the word that it translates is psuchikos, which has no good English counterpart, but might be better translated as "soulish." With this being taken into account, it becomes clear that he is not so much contrasting the physical and the spiritual, which is really a contrast between the "soulish" and the spiritual, but rather a contrast between the corruptible and the incorruptible.
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Old 06-18-2006, 07:30 AM   #172
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Originally Posted by Rick Sumner
It is an oddity of human nature that, when one person is observed banging there head against the wall, soon several more will line up beside him to join in the banging.

I wonder what inspires this desire for collective suffering.

Regards,
Rick Sumner
Well, I'm here suffering because I enjoy the discussion between Earl and others.

But, I do wish you, aa5874, would start your own thread. :banghead:


Done. The trainwreck, should one wish to view it, is now here.
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Old 06-18-2006, 08:16 AM   #173
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If the MJ people can get over the hurdles and show an ancient religion not anchored in any reality whatsoever, that would go a long way
I thought we had a religion clearly anchored in a ritual - the eucharist - that states bread becomes flesh and wine blood. Where is the reality there?

Is there a misunderstanding here of what anthropology is saying? This type of stuff is very common throughout past religions and present ones. Do not hjists have to show why xianity should be treated differently to jupiter worship? We do not assume a real jupiter as the basis of jupiter worship, why assume a real jesus? If it looks like a god, quacks like a god...
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Old 06-18-2006, 08:25 AM   #174
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The similarities between xianity and existing religions were pointed out and argued about by the earliest commentators. The xian defence was ah but we are special, ours is the true god (TM), all others are of satan. Possibly there unique selling point was the creation of this half god half man, co-equal hybrid. Everyone now accepts this xian propaganda point as the starting point - it isn't, the start is our ability to construct gods! We are using points and counterpoints from well down the history and development of these ideas, without realising how warped our concepts have been by the xian assertion that this god lived in Palestine!

We now have the problem of reconstructing xianity as a run of the mill pagan religion that found very powerful propaganda tools!
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Old 06-18-2006, 08:40 AM   #175
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Originally Posted by Clarice O'C
Well, I'm here suffering because I enjoy the discussion between Earl and others.

But, I do wish you, aa5874, would start your own thread. :banghead:
You wish I'd start a thread with who?

I think you missed my analogy. I also can't help but wonder where you get the idea that I've been engaging aa5874 on anything.

Regards,
Rick Sumner
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Old 06-18-2006, 09:00 AM   #176
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Originally Posted by jramsey
Quote:
Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
But how can he do this? How can he go on to offer the last Adam, Christ, as the prototype for the resurrected body of Christians? For Christ himself, when on earth, would have possessed a body not of heavenly material but of earthly stuff, the same as Adam’s. If Paul’s term “man” as applied to Christ refers to the man Jesus of Nazareth—which most scholars declare it does—this ruins everything, for that man did not possess a spiritual body but one made of the same, physical, material which Christians are now composed of. It would be absolutely necessary for Paul to clarify things.

This is a poor argument from silence. Basically, you are saying that Paul would disrupt his neat rhetorical scheme in order to make a pedantic point.
It is nothing of the sort. This is not a “silence” it is an “omission” of a key element in the argument. The point is essential, not pedantic. If a scientist were demonstrating a complex formula on a blackboard, and left out a key equation so that the sense of the thing was compromised, would you call that a “silence”, let alone a “poor argument” if someone pointed out the missing element?

Quote:
Quote:
Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
But a mind as precise and comprehensive as Paul’s would not have left this ambiguity hanging in the air, especially when it could have been dealt with in little more than a phrase.

This is inconsistent with previous arguments that you made. Paul is supposedly precise, yet according to you, he refers to the realm of fleshly spirits with oblique terms like kata sarka that have no linguistic history of having meant "in the realm of fleshly spirits."
I hesitate to acknowledge this as an “argument.” It’s little more than semantic nit-picking, since one is not similar to the other. Being imprecise in the first case destroys Paul’s argument and invites confusion, as my article demonstrates. The second is the usage of a phrase with an established meaning known to the reader, employing a stereotyped expression that was being used all over the Christian world, if we are to judge by the early record.

I note that you do not address the article’s core discussion of the passage, but content yourself with peripheral matters. Why not take apart my presentation of 15:44-49 and demonstrate where it is deficient?

Quote:
Also, the word "physical" in the translations of 1 Cor. 15 is somewhat misleading, as the word that it translates is psuchikos, which has no good English counterpart, but might be better translated as "soulish." With this being taken into account, it becomes clear that he is not so much contrasting the physical and the spiritual, which is really a contrast between the "soulish" and the spiritual, but rather a contrast between the corruptible and the incorruptible.
Regardless of the word used, how can psuxikos not be implying “physical” when the contrast is between Adam and Christ as representing the two poles, Adam being made out of earthy stuff and Christ out of heavenly stuff? How can it not represent the physicality of human beings when Paul is comparing the former (Adam and his stuff) with humans who are to be changed and resurrected? Your semantic argument has no relevance. Translations have no difficulty in translating the word as “natural”. Bauer’s Lexicon gives as the primary meaning of psuxn as “a. of life on earth in its external, physical aspects,” even if it refers to the “soul” as the life-principle within that physicality. The adjective psuxikos is defined “pertaining to the soul or life, in our lit. always denoting the life of the natural world and whatever belongs to it, in contrast to the supernatural world, which is characterized by pneuma.” An anthrwpos psuxikos is “one who lives on the purely material plane.”

Also, you cannot compare the Gospels’ very woolly description of Christ’s post-resurrection body (which, in point of fact, doesn’t make consistent sense as described, and has always exercised commentators and apologists), with Paul’s finely laid-out argument in 1 Corinthians.

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This [in regard to 15:23] ignores the force of the firstfruits metaphor. The firstfruits do not only precede the rest of the harvest in time, but they are of the same stuff. Paul is implying not only that Christ is first in line for the resurrection, but that Christ's resurrection is similar in kind to that of the Corinithians.
Such an understanding is not at all necessary, since all Paul refers to is the order of the resurrections, in time. Any imagined implication of the other sort (that they both start as physical bodies) is contradicted by how he handles the subject in greater detail in 15:44-49. Anyway, in keeping with the paradigmatic principle that Christ is the spiritual counterpart of humans/believers on earth, and his experiences are the guarantee of the latter’s experience (as in Romans 6:5 where Paul says we shall be united with him in a resurrection like his), your ‘firstfruits’ implication could apply in this sense, simply in the fact of counterpart resurrection, even if one is spiritual and the other material, both ending up in a spiritual resurrection body in heaven.

All the best,
Earl Doherty
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Old 06-18-2006, 09:16 AM   #177
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Rick Sumner
You wish I'd start a thread with who?

I think you missed my analogy. I also can't help but wonder where you get the idea that I've been engaging aa5874 on anything.

Regards,
Rick Sumner
Hi Rick, I was agreeing with you:

------------

Quote:
Originally Posted by Rick Sumner

It is an oddity of human nature that, when one person is observed banging there head against the wall, soon several more will line up beside him to join in the banging.

I wonder what inspires this desire for collective suffering.

Regards,
Rick Sumner

~~~~~~~~

Clarice:

Well, I'm here suffering because I enjoy the discussion between Earl and others.

But, I do wish you, aa5874, would start your own thread. :banghead:
-------------

I was commenting that aa5874 start his/her own thread, not you.

Best wishes,
Clarice
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Old 06-18-2006, 09:33 AM   #178
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Clarice O'C
~~~~~~~~

Clarice:

Well, I'm here suffering because I enjoy the discussion between Earl and others.

But, I do wish you, aa5874, would start your own thread. :banghead:
-------------

I was commenting that aa5874 start his/her own thread, not you.

Best wishes,
Clarice
Heh, another instance of the limitations of 'net communication. I'd read it as "you [and]".

Apologies,
Rick Sumner
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Old 06-18-2006, 10:07 AM   #179
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Originally Posted by gnosis92
one reason i originally posted this thread "Jesus myth not accepted by professional historians" is that i doubt Doherty's thesis would be accepted by peer-reviewed respected academic journals since Doherty would not be able to explain to the satisfaction of competent academic historians the fact Paul *does* refer to a historical Jesus in several passages (what Doherty calls "human sounding*), and that the onus of proving Jesus non-existence, despite documents from antiquity asserting the contrary, rests on Doherty, and he had not met that burden of proof nor shown that his idiosyncratic interpretation of the Pauline corpus is superior to the one which assumes a HJ. Paul was writing to a specific audience, and it seems clear to me his audience were people who believed in a HJ rather than a MJ.
Can you please date the writings of Paul based on the authentic writings of Paul? One really needs to do so, in order to use him as a witness to anything.

Quote:
Originally Posted by gnosis92
that said, i would be facinated for Doherty to publish in respected academic journals devoted to serious new testament scholarship, and i would like NT heavy weights from Crossan, Ehrman, Pagels, Riley, Mack, etc cetera to weigh-in. i imagine they would use the same arguments others have suggested, such as the gospels having embarrassing information on jesus that works against their theology, the contextual credibility of the gospels within first century palestine, a historical Jesus remains the most parsimonious explanation and historically plausible explanation for the origins of Pauline Corpos, gospels, and the early Christian movement.
I would be interested in any of the writers you mentioned attempting to publish a historical analysis of Jesus. You will find not a scrap of substantive evidence. One has to rely on the contortions of what the writers of undated texts meant.

Quote:
Originally Posted by gnosis92
while i have not read, nor plan to read, Clement 1, other early Christian authors such as Marcion, Papias, Iraneous, Justin, Tertullian, clearly believed Jesus existed as a figure of history. this is where professional academic historians, at respect universities (pagels is at Princeton, Ehrman is at UNC) come in useful. i do not know, nor have any interest in learning, Koine Greek.
Well, why are you bothering to post your musings if you are not prepared to take some steps towards knowing something about what you profess interest in?

Quote:
Originally Posted by gnosis92
As far as arguments of silence are concerned, if Jesus did not exist, i would expect Celsus or Pliny or Tacitus to use this argument against Christianity, if it were true. Celsus not only does not use this argument, but goes so far as to suggst Jesus' father was a roman soldier.
Your conjectures here have little value. You don't realise that Celsus was a pagan believer and attacked christianity of its apparent religious inconsistancies. Scratch that one from your theory. There is an ongoing debate as to the veracity of the passage in Tacitus which is a convenient nutshell overview of christianity cloaked in non-believer garb. The passage stinks. Pliny admits knowing next to nothing about christianity. You are asking ridiculous things from the authors you cite. Why make comments about things you have no knowledge of??


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Old 06-18-2006, 11:14 AM   #180
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In case my in-thread reference was missed, the tangent resulting from aa5874's assertions can be found here.
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