Zeichman

I suspect, unfortunately, that it hasn't been addressed much outside online circles, but what are the major objections to this, aside from what he addressed in his response to Craig? And is there anyone who wrote about what implications an early dating for Ignatius would have upon his arguments? Or is there a bunch of at least mildly-credible responses someone could reccomend I read?

andrewcriddle

The fact that some version of 1 Corinthians 15:2-8 appears to have been part of the text used by Marcion and his followers and by Valentinus and his followers makes a 2nd century interpolation unlikely.

Andrew Criddle

Zeichman

From the article, it sounded like he believes it to have been added around the time of Lukan/Praxic composition, and I'm sure he places it much later than most, but that'd mean before the end of the first century for most. But he does affirm a Marcionitic-proto-Luke, from what I recall, which certainly complexifies matters for him.