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Old 08-28-2006, 08:08 AM   #41
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According to Matthew 16:17-19, didn't Jesus appoint Peter to be the first Pope?

Matthew 16
18 And I say also unto thee, That thou art Peter, and upon this rock I will build my church; and the gates of hell shall not prevail against it.
19 And I will give unto thee the keys of the kingdom of heaven: and whatsoever thou shalt bind on earth shall be bound in heaven: and whatsoever thou shalt loose on earth shall be loosed in heaven.

Didn't a bunch of Catholic Bishops choose your Bible for you? (Council of Nicaea 325 CE).

Where were the Protestants before Martin Luther?

Jake Jones IV
P.S., No, I am not a Catholic.
I personally don't follow the belief that the Roman Catholics put our Bible and religion into place for us. It was long in affect before their 'self-appointed' authority.

There must have been many scripts written in the Old Testament times. Jesus himself said "it is written"

Jesus' message was also being preached long before Martin Luther also. It is call the Good News or sometimes The Gospel. That is the message I follow and that is what is being taught in my church.


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Where does the Bible, as a compilation of texts as we know it now, claim for itself inerrancy?
John 1:1
The Word Became Flesh In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

That's innerrant enough for me.
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Old 08-28-2006, 08:12 AM   #42
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When did the Bible get its name, and who named it?

Jake Jones IV
Etymology
Latin biblia meaning "a collection of books" (since there are many books in the Bible), from Greek (τα) βιβλία, (ta) biblia, "(the) books", plural of βιβλίον, biblion, "book", originally a diminutive of βίβλος, biblos, which in turn is derived from βύβλος—byblos, meaning "papyrus", from the ancient Phoenician city of Byblos which exported this writing material
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Old 08-28-2006, 09:08 AM   #43
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Where does the Bible, as a compilation of texts as we know it now, claim for itself inerrancy?
2 Tim. 3:16, "All Scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction, for instruction in righteousness, (17) that the man of God may be complete, thoroughly equipped for every good work"

For interest sake, read why Paul tells Timothy the importance of knowing the Scriptures ( verse 15 -unto salvation;study to show yourself approved unto God;rightly dividing the Word of God (lie from the Truth) and 4: 2-4 , to preach it, for man will turn their back on it (prediction or prophecy)

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Originally Posted by jakejonesiv View Post
When did the Bible get its name, and who named it?

Jake Jones IV
The word "Bible" does not occur in the Holy Scriptures. The English word "Bible" is a manufactured, made-up word. Its origin is in the Greek word for the papyrus (pa-Pie-rus) plant that the Egyptians used to make paper. The Greeks called the plant biblos and eventually writing products derived from the plant such as scrolls became known as biblos. There is even an ancient Phoenician city named "Byblos" whose name is derived from its extensive manufacturer and trade in writing materials. To invent the word Bible, scholars borrowed the plural Greek word "biblia" meaning scrolls, or "little books" and created the English word Bible.
among the terms employed by the sacred writers to designate the collection of books which we call "the Bible" are these: The Scriptures, The Holy Scriptures; The Word; The Word of Truth; The Law and the Prophets; The Old and New Testaments. During the time it took to write the books of the Bible, probably over 1200 years, the writings were circulated individually or in groups. It was not until the 4th century A.D. that the books were all put in a single volume.
The entire collection of sacred books, also referred to as the "Library of Divine Revelation," the name Bible was adopted by Wickliffe, and came gradually into use in our English language.
The Bible consists of sixty-six different books, composed by many different writers, in three different languages, under different circumstances; writers of almost every social rank, statesmen and peasants, kings, herdsmen, fishermen, priests, tax-gatherers, tentmakers; educated and uneducated, Jews and Gentiles; most of them unknown to each other, and writing at various periods during the space of about 1600 years: and yet, after all, it is only one book dealing with only one subject in
its numberless aspects and relations, the subject of man's redemption.

It is divided into the Old Testament, containing thirty-nine books, and the New Testament, containing twenty-seven books. The names given to the Old in the writings of the New are "the scriptures" (Matt. 21:42), "scripture" (2 Pet. 1:20), "the holy scriptures" (Rom. 1:2), "the law" (John 12:34), "the law of Moses, the prophets, and the psalms" (Luke 24:44), "the law and
the prophets" (Matt. 5:17), "the old covenant" (2 Cor. 3:14, R.V.). There is a break of 400 years between the Old Testament and the New. The Old Testament is divided into three parts:
1. The Law (Torah), consisting of the Pentateuch, or five books of Moses.
2. The Prophets, consisting of (1) the former, namely, Joshua, Judges, the Books of Samuel, and the Books of Kings; (2) the latter, namely, the greater prophets, Isaiah, Jeremiah, and Ezekiel, and the twelve minor prophets.
3. The Hagiographa, or holy writings, including the rest of the books. These were ranked in three divisions:, (1) The Psalms, Proverbs, and Job distinguished by the Hebrew name, a word formed of the initial letters of these books, _emeth_, meaning truth. (2) Canticles, Ruth, Lamentations, Ecclesiastes, and Esther, called the five rolls, as being written for the synagogue use on five separate rolls. (3) Daniel, Ezra, Nehemiah, and 1 and 2 Chronicles.

Between the Old and the New Testament no addition was made to the revelation God had already given. The period of New Testament revelation, extending over a century, began with the appearance of John the Baptist.

The New Testament consists of
(1) the historical books, viz., the Gospels, and the Acts of the Apostles;
(2) the Epistles; and
(3) the book of prophecy, the Revelation.

The division of the Bible into chapters and verses is
altogether of human invention, designed to facilitate reference to it. The ancient Jews divided the Old Testament into certain sections for use in the synagogue service, and then at a later period, in the ninth century A.D., into verses Our modern system of chapters for all the books of the Bible was introduced by Cardinal Hugo about the middle of the thirteenth century (he died 1263).
The system of verses for the New Testament was introduced by Stephens in 1551, and generally adopted, although neither Tyndale's nor Coverdale's English translation of the Bible has verses. The division is not always wisely made, yet it is very useful.


Sources:
1.Dake’s Annotated Bible and Concordance and KJV
2.http://onlinedictionary.datasegment.com/word/bible

Regards
Carin Nel
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Old 08-28-2006, 10:50 AM   #44
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Originally Posted by Faithful View Post
I personally don't follow the belief that the Roman Catholics put our Bible and religion into place for us. It was long in affect before their 'self-appointed' authority.

There must have been many scripts written in the Old Testament times. Jesus himself said "it is written"

Jesus' message was also being preached long before Martin Luther also. It is call the Good News or sometimes The Gospel. That is the message I follow and that is what is being taught in my church.




John 1:1
The Word Became Flesh In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

That's innerrant enough for me.
Hi Faithful,

That is a statement that the Logos (Word) was God and became flesh. I am assuming that you would apply this to Jesus Christ, right? But I am asking about the book, the Bible. John 1:1 doesn't say anything about the book, and it doesn't tell me why James is in the Bible and why the Gospel of Peter is not.

Jake Jones IV
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Old 08-28-2006, 11:10 AM   #45
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Originally Posted by Carin Nel View Post
2 Tim. 3:16, "All Scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction, for instruction in righteousness, (17) that the man of God may be complete, thoroughly equipped for every good work"

For interest sake, read why Paul tells Timothy the importance of knowing the Scriptures ( verse 15 -unto salvation;study to show yourself approved unto God;rightly dividing the Word of God (lie from the Truth) and 4: 2-4 , to preach it, for man will turn their back on it (prediction or prophecy)
Hi Carin,

Thanks for the response. Back in those days the scriptures were limited to the Old Testament. There was no New Testament yet as a collection. It was still being written. Your quote below proves the point. (I highlighted it in red).


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Originally Posted by Carin Nel View Post
The Bible consists of sixty-six different books, ...
They are the seventy-two books found in Catholic editions of the Bible. I think the Greek Orthodox church Bible has a few more. Since these two churches are far older than any protestant denomination, who gets to decide what is in the Bible?[/quote]

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Originally Posted by Carin Nel View Post
... composed by many different writers, in three different languages, under different circumstances; writers of almost every social rank, statesmen and peasants, kings, herdsmen, fishermen, priests, tax-gatherers, tentmakers; educated and uneducated, Jews and Gentiles; most of them unknown to each other, and writing at various periods during the space of about 1600 years: and yet, after all, it is only one book dealing with only one subject in
its numberless aspects and relations, the subject of man's redemption.
I can name plenty of verses that have nothing to do with man's redemption.
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Originally Posted by Carin Nel View Post
It is divided into the Old Testament, containing thirty-nine books, and the New Testament, containing twenty-seven books. The names given to the Old in the writings of the New are "the scriptures" (Matt. 21:42), "scripture" (2 Pet. 1:20), "the holy scriptures" (Rom. 1:2), "the law" (John 12:34), "the law of Moses, the prophets, and the psalms" (Luke 24:44), "the law and the prophets" (Matt. 5:17), "the old covenant" (2 Cor. 3:14, R.V.).
...
Regards
Carin Nel
How do we know what books go into the New Testamant? Who got to decide?

Jake Jones IV
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Old 08-28-2006, 01:41 PM   #46
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Hi Faithful,

I see what you mean. Except for prostelitizing, cults keep their members from having much contatct with the outside society. They need to keep their members isolated to keep them under control!

You know, be not part of the world, do not date or marry outside the cult, do not think for yourself; only believe what the cult leaders tell you.

Jake Jones IV
The whole idea is to have inner peace. I have a free will but have to make certain choices to be able to live with myself in order to gain that inner peace. I believe you are saying that we are in this world, but not a part of it. That means that our heart doesn't share the evil thoughts and actions of this world. We still have to live in this world among others, not isolated in some compound.
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Old 08-28-2006, 01:46 PM   #47
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Hi Faithful,

That is a statement that the Logos (Word) was God and became flesh. I am assuming that you would apply this to Jesus Christ, right? But I am asking about the book, the Bible. John 1:1 doesn't say anything about the book, and it doesn't tell me why James is in the Bible and why the Gospel of Peter is not.

Jake Jones IV
We have already established that the word 'Bible' isn't in the Bible. However it is referred to as the 'Word', so John 1:1 still stands.

1 Kings 13:5
Also, the altar was split apart and its ashes poured out according to the sign given by the man of God by the word of the LORD.
Matthew 13:20
The one who received the seed that fell on rocky places is the man who hears the word and at once receives it with joy.
Mark 2:2
So many gathered that there was no room left, not even outside the door, and he preached the word to them.


The teachings of Peter are in the Book of Acts.
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Old 08-28-2006, 02:54 PM   #48
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We have already established that the word 'Bible' isn't in the Bible. However it is referred to as the 'Word', so John 1:1 still stands.

1 Kings 13:5
Also, the altar was split apart and its ashes poured out according to the sign given by the man of God by the word of the LORD.
Matthew 13:20
The one who received the seed that fell on rocky places is the man who hears the word and at once receives it with joy.
Mark 2:2
So many gathered that there was no room left, not even outside the door, and he preached the word to them.


...
The word of God were the words that God allegedly told the prophets to speak. e.g. 1 Kings 12:22, 1 Chronicles 17:3. That doesn't vouch for every word written in today's Bible, and doesn't vouch for any of the New Testament.

I am getting the feeling that you are confusing the pre-existent Christ (Logos), the words spoken by the prophets (word of God), and the written Bible. These are three different concepts.

Jake Jones IV
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Old 08-28-2006, 03:00 PM   #49
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The whole idea is to have inner peace. I have a free will but have to make certain choices to be able to live with myself in order to gain that inner peace. I believe you are saying that we are in this world, but not a part of it. That means that our heart doesn't share the evil thoughts and actions of this world. We still have to live in this world among others, not isolated in some compound.
Jesus is reported as saying he didn't come to bring peace, and I can't find the term "inner peace" any where in the Bible.

Maybe you read it in a religous tract.

Jake Jones IV
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Old 08-28-2006, 04:25 PM   #50
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2 Tim. 3:16, "All Scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction, for instruction in righteousness, (17) that the man of God may be complete, thoroughly equipped for every good work"
To be technical it actually says all writing (pasa graphe) not all scripture. Leave it to later Christians to "religify" everything. Technically that passage could mean Penthouse an Playboy are given by god to teaching and instruction to a child for righteousness. They certainly did teach a lot of my contemporaries and instruct them. It is true that many times when an author used writings (as in the preceeding verses) he meant the Old Testament scripture (note that there was no New Testament at the time so the NT must be excluded from the discussion) but why deliniate this passage to only that group of writings?.
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