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02-16-2012, 05:06 AM | #81 | ||
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Grammatically the two phrases say the exact same thing. In Greek, word order is not as important as inflection. This is why interlinear translations (English gloss directly under each Greek word) take a little getting used to, as it comes across a bit like the way Yoda speaks in Star Wars movies.
If anyone wants to see what I am talking about, go to this online interlinear at www.scripture4all.org. DCH Quote:
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02-16-2012, 05:09 AM | #82 | ||
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http://www.earlychristianwritings.co...lightfoot.html (from: _Apostolic Fathers_ Lightfoot & Harmer, 1891 translation) |
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02-16-2012, 05:51 AM | #83 | ||||
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Maybe I am over interpreting, out of ignorance. Quite possible. Maybe Holmes has simply failed to appreciate the distinction offered by Lightfoot, it is easy to overlook a few extra symbols here and there, in the process of revision. My assumption is that Holmes is politely suggesting that Lightfoot erred, and that there is no overlap between the two, i.e. no evidence of identity between the passage in Acts 1:25, and the phrase in Ignatius' letter to Magnesians 5:1. Both versions have "...to his own place", as the English interpretation of the two different Greek phrases. The phrase, in Acts 1:25 is focused on Judas, with the implication that Judas was en route to Hell, as "his own place", while, in my most unlearned opinion, the letter from Ignatius is unrelated to Judas, instead relating the future for all people, choosing between faith in the divinity of Jesus, and those who have been Quote:
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02-16-2012, 06:16 AM | #84 |
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Are Acts and Luke truly written by the same Author??
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02-16-2012, 06:20 AM | #85 | ||||||
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02-16-2012, 07:14 AM | #86 | |
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From a man who has spent 30 years in the study of Acts:
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02-16-2012, 07:53 AM | #87 |
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What:huh:
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02-16-2012, 08:03 AM | #88 | |
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More from Richard Pervo.
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02-16-2012, 08:30 AM | #89 |
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so....no:constern01:
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02-16-2012, 08:34 AM | #90 |
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