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Old 01-01-2013, 11:40 AM   #41
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I doubt that either of them is right. We can hardly rely on late writings like Clement or late Christian reports of what the Marcionites said, to create an accurate picture of what Paul (or even earlier forgers of 'Paul') actually wrote.
But that is the crux of the issue for me. If Clement and Marcion established that Paul had a gospel, and the Marcionites that he received a revelation and first composed 'the gospel' and this text was later corrupted by the Catholics, Paul becomes the promoter of a visitation of Jesus to the earthly realm. For your edification, Clement's argument regarding Paul's interpretation of the gospel ('according to the Egyptians') which has Jesus tell his disciple a new commandment - 'thou shalt not lust.' The point here is that it isn't just the Marcionites or just Clement and his Alexandrian tradition but the entire universe of Christians that Clement knew in the late second century. They all seemed to have possessed the same basic gospel, the same basic canon of Pauline writings and assumed that the gospel had sayings, known to Paul, known to them which reinforced an interwoven understanding of 'the truth.' Some highlights from the argument that starts at the beginning of chapter 3 (against the Basilideans not cited here) and continues down to:

Quote:
How can this fellow still be listed in our church members’ register when he openly does away with the Law and the Gospels alike by these words? The former says, "You shall not commit adultery," the latter, "Everyone who looks with lust has already committed adultery." The words found in the Law, "You shall not lust," show that it is one single God who makes his proclamations through the Law, prophets and Gospels. He says, "You shall not lust for your neighbor’s wife" ... [Strom 3.8.4]

If the adulteress and her paramour are both punished with death, it is surely clear that the commandment "You shall not lust for your neighbor’s wife" applies to the gentiles, so that anyone who follows the Law in keeping his hands off his neighbor’s wife and his sister may hear directly from the Lord: "But I say to you, you shall not lust." (i.e. 'in the gospel') The addition of the pronoun "I" shows that the application of the commandment is more rigidly binding, and that Carpocrates and Epiphanes are battling against God. Epiphanes in that notorious book, I mean On Righteousness, goes on like this, and I quote: "So you must hear the words ‘You shall not lust’ as a joke of the Lawgiver, to which he added the even more ludicrous words ‘for your neighbor’s property.’ The very one who endows human beings with desire to sustain the processes of birth gives orders that it is to be suppressed, though he suppresses it in no other living creature! The words ‘for your neighbor’s wife’ are even more ridiculous since he is forcing public property to become private property" ... [Strom 3.9.1 - 3]

Anyway, there is a story that one of them encountered one of our beautiful virgins and said, "It is written, ‘Give yourself to anyone who asks.’" (i.e. another saying from the gospel misrepresented, according to Clement, by the heretics) She did not understand the fellow’s impudence and replied with the height of propriety, "If the subject is marriage, speak to my mother." What godlessness! These communists in sexual freedom, these brothers in lustfulness, actually pervert the Savior’s words. They are a disgrace not just to philosophy but to the whole of human life. They deface the truth, or rather raze it to the ground insofar as they can. The wretches make a religion out of physical union and sexual intercourse, and think that this will lead them into the kingdom of God. It is to the brothels that that sort of communism leads. Pigs and goats should be their companions. It is the whores who preside over the bordello and indiscriminately receive all comers who have most to hope from them. "That is not how you have learned Christ, if you have been told of him, if you have learned your lessons in him, as the truth is in Jesus Christ – to leave on one side your former way of life, to put off the old human nature, which is deluded by its lusts and on the road to destruction ... [Strom 3.27.3 - 4.2]

How can a combination of immoderation and dirty language be freedom? "Everyone who sins is a slave," says the Apostle. How can the man who has given himself over to every lust be a citizen according to the Law of God when the Lord has declared, "I say, you shall not lust"? Is a person to take a decision to sin deliberately, and to lay it down as a principle to commit adultery, to waste his substance in high living, and to break up other people’s marriages, when we actually pity the rest who fall involuntarily into sin? ... [Strom 3.30.3 - 31.1]

In consequence, some other worthless scoundrels say that humanity was fashioned by different powers, the body down to the navel being the product of divine craftsmanship, and below that of inferior work; which is why human beings yearn for intercourse. They forget that the upper parts of the body call out for food, and in some people show lust. They contradict Christ’s statement to the Pharisees that the same God made our outer and our inner man. In addition, desire does not come from the body, even though it expresses itself through the body ... [Strom 3.34.1, 2]

The person who drifts into pleasures is gratifying his body; the ascetic is freeing his soul from passions, and the soul has authority over the body. If they tell us that we are called to freedom, we are not, as the Apostle puts it, to present that "freedom as an opening for our lower selves." If we are to gratify lust, if we are to think a reprehensible way of living a matter of moral indifference, as they assert, either we ought to obey our lusts at all points and, if so, to engage in the most immoral and irreligious practices in conformity with our teachers, or we shall turn away from some of our desires, no longer compelled to live by amoral standards, no longer in unbridled servitude to our least honorable parts – stomach and sex-organs – pampering our carcass to serve our desire. (6) Lust is nurtured and vitalized if we minister to its enjoyment; on the other hand, it fades away if it is kept in check. [Strom 3.41.2 - 4] We must follow God’s Scripture, the road taken by the faithful, and we will, so far as possible, become like the Lord. We are not to live amorally. We are, so far as possible, to purify ourselves from pleasures and lusts, and take care of our soul which should continue to be engaged solely with the divine. For if it is pure and freed from all vice, the mind is somehow capable of receiving the power of God, when the divine image is established within it. Scripture says, "Everyone who has this hope in the Lord is purifying himself as the Lord is pure" ... [Strom 3.42,5, 6]

"You have been circumcised in Christ with a circumcision not performed with hands in stripping yourselves of your fleshly body, that is, in Christ’s circumcision." "So if you are risen together with Christ, look for the things above, fix your mind on them, not on earthly things. For you are dead, and your life has been buried in God together with Christ" – this hardly applies to the sexual immorality which they practice! "So mortify your earthly members – fornication, filthiness, passion, lust; through these the visitation of anger is on its way." So they too should put away "anger, temper, vice, slander, dirty talk from their mouths, stripping themselves of the old human nature with its lusts and putting on the new human nature, which is renewed for full knowledge in accordance with the likeness of its creator" ... [Strom 3.43.3 -4]

This is the way to undermine the "righteousness" of Carpocrates and those who match him in sharing in a fellowship of immorality. In the moment of saying, "Give to anyone who asks," Scripture goes on, "and do not turn away anyone who wants a loan." This is the sort of fellowship Scripture teaches, not fellowship in lust. How can there be a person who asks, receives, and borrows if there is no one who possesses, grants, and lends? What does the Lord say? "I was hungry and you gave me food. I was thirsty and you gave me drink. I was a stranger and you took me into your home. I was naked and you gave me clothes to wear." Then he adds, "Insofar as you have done so to one of the humblest of these, you have done so to me" ... [Strom 3.54.1 - 3]

That concludes that demonstration. Now I propose to establish the Scriptures which refute these heretical sophists and expound the norm of self-discipline which we keep in following the Logos. The person of understanding will think out the passage of Scripture that is appropriate to challenge each of the heresies and use it at the apposite moment to refute those who set their dogmas against the commandments. From the very beginning, as I have already said, the Law laid down the injunction "You shall not desire your neighbor’s wife" in anticipation of the Lord’s closely connected dictum in accordance with the New Covenant with the same meaning from his own lips: "You have heard the injunction of the Law. ‘You shall not commit adultery.’ I say, ‘You shall not lust.’" The Law wished males to have responsible sexual relations with their marriage partners, solely for the production of children. This is clear when a bachelor is prevented from enjoying immediate sexual relations with a woman prisoner-of-war. If he once falls in love with her, he must let her cut her hair short and mourn for thirty days. If even so his desire has not faded away, then he may father children by her. The fixed period of time enables the overpowering impulse to be scrutinized and to turn into a rational appetency ... [Strom 3.71.1 - 3]

Similarly, in his Epistle to the Romans, Paul writes [of the Scripture text]: "We are dead to sin: how can we continue to live in it? Our old humanity was crucified with him, so as to destroy the very body of sin" down to "Do not present the parts of your body to sin to be instruments of vice." At this point, I think that I ought not to leave on one side without comment the fact that the Apostle preaches the same God whether through the Law, the prophets, or the gospel. For in his letter to the Romans he attributes to the Law the words "You shall not lust" which in fact appear in the text of the gospel. He does so in the knowledge that it is one single person who makes his decrees through the Law and the prophets, and is the subject of the gospel’s proclamation. He says, "What shall we say? Is the Law sin? Of course not. But I did not know sin except through the Law. I did not know lust, except that the Law said, ‘You shall not lust.’" If the heretics who assail the creator suppose that Paul was speaking against him in the words that follow: "I know that nothing good lodges in me, in my flesh, that is to say," they had better read the words which precede and come after these. He has just said, "Sin lodges in me," which makes it appropriate to go on to, "Nothing good lodges in my flesh." [Strom 3.75.3 - 76.3]
A long exegesis of Romans 7 - 8 continues where - as we have noted - it is assumed by Clement, the Basilideans, the Valentinians, the Carpocratians, the Marcionites, the followers of Prodicus, the followers of Cassianus, that Paul had or wrote the gospel and wrote the letter to Romans especially knowing the contents of that text.
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Old 01-01-2013, 11:52 AM   #42
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Quite a few scholars have seen Pauline influence in GMark.
Thank you George, well written, as always, and a pleasure to read. I have plucked this single sentence out of your rejoinder, because I dispute its conclusion.

a. Who are these scholars, and where is the evidence of Pauline influence on Mark's gospel?

b. How do these scholars explain that parallel sentiments come from Paul to Mark, rather than vice versa?

c. Which scholars ( as opposed to internet mavens) dispute these conclusions, and upon which evidence?

Here's what I have found, this is certainly not an exhaustive review. I know that Jiri, for one, has a far more extensive series of arguments, favoring the same notion which you have proposed, George.

I dispute this facile notion, primarily because I haven't yet encountered a meaningful argument favoring the idea that Paul preceded Mark.

Here's my understanding of why one scholar, Joel Marcus professor at Duke University school of Theology, imagines that Paul influenced Mark (summarizing his two monographs, in a single sentence):

Quote:
The dominant use of the noun euangelion (Note how often the singular noun euangelion (gospel) is in Mark and Paul and how rare it is prior to and in the rest of the NT
Holy Cow.

And this guy is one of guruGeorge's "scholars".

If forum members will pick up a copy of Origen's Contra Celsum, he uses the word "gospel", i.e. εὐαγγελίου, at least FORTY TIMES.

So, is this chap Marcus going to tell me that Origen too, influenced Mark's gospel, because he employs the word gospel in his text?

How does crap like this pass for academic accomplishment? :huh:

Quote:
Originally Posted by Michael Kok
Claiming that Mark is a Paulinist does not require that he agree with Paul about everything, and plausible reasons can be advanced for a later Paulinist wanting to write the story of the earthly Jesus. Martin Werner's assertion that the agreements between Mark and Paul reflect general early Christian viewpoints is not valid with regard to the theology of the cross, which was a controversial Pauline emphasis and a stress that the later Gospels attenuated in editing Mark. Contrary to Werner, Mark and Paul agree in ascribing Jesus' death to a combination of human and demonic opponents.
Martin Werner's
1923 monograph Der Einfluss paulinischer Theologie im Markusevangelium had denied a relationship between Mark and Paul, but I do not know what his reasons were, and I have not read the book, nor have I access to Joel Marcus' article. I vigorously dispute the idea that εὐαγγελίου, appearing in both Mark and Paul, proves that either author preceded the other. Ditto for any other word. This is nonsense. George, I believe that you require a far more substantial investigation by someone, whether "scholar" or plain jane. I don't really care a whit about academic credentials, but I do care about

evidence
&
logic

I detect neither, in Marcus' article as summarized in the abstract available from the New Testament Studies article from Cambridge University Press.

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Old 01-01-2013, 11:55 AM   #43
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I do not tend to see as much "breakaway" of sects as you are querying. It's just a lot diversity jockeying for position and condemning rival forms of belief. The 'breakaway' idea developed among the orthodox stream once that expression began to see itself as the original (based in the Gospel story) and reinterpreted everything else as heretical deviations. Some of the gnostics (the so-called "Christian Gnostics") largely fell into the same trap and accepted the existence of the Gospel Jesus but saw themselves as holding the proper interpretation of him (docetic and preaching their own theology, and according the same to Paul), regarding the orthodox as erroneously treating Jesus as literally human.

I'm not sure you can identify any "heretical group" in the 2nd century as closest to interpreting Paul as faith in a sacrificial spiritual Son of God operating entirely in the heavens. Most of the 2nd century apologists do not, as they have no sacrificial aspect to their Logos.

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The problem with gnosticism is the -ism itself that would require God to have grandchildren, which he does not, while the Christian is gnostic with the mind of Christ, that Plato called "actualizing our condition neologically" = no grandchildren for sure, as our 'condition of being' is not ours until it actually is realized.

The Son of Man is born unto man out of the nuclues wherein 'life' first was conceived already in the conscious mind of the male, so that he can be the Son who is destined to be become the father of Man and thus bring peace of mind in eternal bliss.

For this to happen a pathway must be imprinted by religion in the human mind to show the way home, or the magi would never be able to find the stable and thus is why they made a stop at Jerusalem instead of Beth-le-hem to ask where that stable is. Be it known here that the Star of Bethlehem is real in the same way that Jesus was real, as you can see by the error they made.

That was the common problem back then and is the reason why the 4 gospels are presented, in that order, to make known the difference between right and wrong.

It has nothing to do with history because already in Matthew 2:2 they showed exactly that a tragedy was to follow (never mind 1:1 where the Record already points at a tragedy when they introduced Joseph as the dreamer he was). My point here is that Matthew and Luke make a pair of opposites wherein the apparent differences are there to compliment each other instead of contradict. It so is that Luke at least was envisioned before Matthew was written.

And so it just is not good enough to be Marcionite regardless of how gnostic Marcion was, as 'down under' one must go to rise from 'tyranny to extacy' on our own.

The same thing is true with the Panteist who admires hand of God in nature while he fails to be one himself (hence, John 5:29 is a passage that nobody knows).

In this sense is the myth-icist is much the same, because if the Star of Bethlehem is needed for once in your life, one must leave history out of the argument for sure.
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Old 01-01-2013, 11:58 AM   #44
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The point then is that claiming that Paul never understood Jesus to have set foot on the earth runs into a brick wall with respect to the heresies no less than the Church Fathers. The heretics understood Paul to have had a gospel and that gospel necessarily portrayed Jesus engaging disciples on earth. Once this beachhead is established (and I see you providing no evidence against this proposition) it is clear that Marcion and many other heretics viewed themselves as 'the Paraclete' a figure not only prophesied by Jesus while he was on the earth but also - most importantly - part of a narrative framework where a supernatural Jesus came to establish humanity 'in his image' through an elect individual, the same elect individual called 'Paul' by the Catholic sources.

I think you are right to point to the fact that Paul's understanding of Jesus came by means of revelation and thus was essentially ahistorical. I am not disputing you there. I go along with most of what you are saying. But it is one thing to argue against the 'late' Church Fathers's interpretation of a historical Jesus 'god' born of a virgin and another to also take on the opinions of dozens of enemies of the Catholic Church who believed that Paul knew and used a gospel (undoubtedly given to him by the same 'revelation' in which he met Jesus in ahistorical time) which set a 'visit' of Jesus to the Jews in some sort of historical framework. I don't see how you get around that merely by arguing that Paul's text as we now have it CAN BE READ in a way which supports your hypothesis.
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Old 01-01-2013, 12:03 PM   #45
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Originally Posted by tanya View Post
Here's my understanding of why one scholar, Joel Marcus professor at Duke University school of Theology, imagines that Paul influenced Mark (summarizing his two monographs, in a single sentence):

Quote:
Originally Posted by
Joel Marcus Duke University School of Theology,
New Testament Studies / Volume 46 / Issue 04 / October 2000, pp 473-487
The dominant use of the noun euangelion (Note how often the singular noun euangelion (gospel) is in Mark and Paul and how rare it is prior to and in the rest of the NT
Holy Cow.

And this guy is one of guruGeorge's "scholars".

If forum members will pick up a copy of Origen's Contra Celsum, he uses the word "gospel", i.e. εὐαγγελίου, at least FORTY TIMES.

So, is this chap Marcus going to tell me that Origen too, influenced Mark's gospel, because he employs the word gospel in his text?

...
I applaud your effort to look at the sources behind common assumptions, but you have missed the key words.

The singular noun euangelion is rare "prior to and in the rest of the New Testament." Origen is not prior to the NT.
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Old 01-01-2013, 12:17 PM   #46
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Quite a few scholars have seen Pauline influence in GMark.
Correct.
The vast majority.
Gurugeorge is correct. outhouse is not--yet another unsourced error. For example, Paul is mentioned in Wiki "Gospel of Mark" only as Mark's companion in Rome. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gospel_of_Mark
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Old 01-01-2013, 12:30 PM   #47
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I doubt that either of them is right. We can hardly rely on late writings like Clement or late Christian reports of what the Marcionites said, to create an accurate picture of what Paul (or even earlier forgers of 'Paul') actually wrote.
But that is the crux of the issue for me. If Clement and Marcion established that Paul had a gospel, and the Marcionites that he received a revelation and first composed 'the gospel' and this text was later corrupted by the Catholics, Paul becomes the promoter of a visitation of Jesus to the earthly realm...

[snip]

Quote:
Similarly, in his Epistle to the Romans, Paul writes [of the Scripture text]: "We are dead to sin: how can we continue to live in it? Our old humanity was crucified with him, so as to destroy the very body of sin" down to "Do not present the parts of your body to sin to be instruments of vice." At this point, I think that I ought not to leave on one side without comment the fact that the Apostle preaches the same God whether through the Law, the prophets, or the gospel. For in his letter to the Romans he attributes to the Law the words "You shall not lust" which in fact appear in the text of the gospel. He does so in the knowledge that it is one single person who makes his decrees through the Law and the prophets, and is the subject of the gospel’s proclamation. He says, "What shall we say? Is the Law sin? Of course not. But I did not know sin except through the Law. I did not know lust, except that the Law said, ‘You shall not lust.’" If the heretics who assail the creator suppose that Paul was speaking against him in the words that follow: "I know that nothing good lodges in me, in my flesh, that is to say," they had better read the words which precede and come after these. He has just said, "Sin lodges in me," which makes it appropriate to go on to, "Nothing good lodges in my flesh." [Strom 3.75.3 - 76.3]
A long exegesis of Romans 7 - 8 continues where - as we have noted - it is assumed by Clement, the Basilideans, the Valentinians, the Carpocratians, the Marcionites, the followers of Prodicus, the followers of Cassianus, that Paul had or wrote the gospel and wrote the letter to Romans especially knowing the contents of that text.
It is anything but clear to me from what you quote (and I've snipped what isn't essential, it seems, to your contention) that Paul wrote a gospel that he is quoting from. You even say "had or wrote". But that's really beside the point. By the time Clement was writing, it is very possible that a certain gospel text was being either attributed to Paul or considered to have been in his possession. Good grief, there are all sorts of traditions at the beginning of the 3rd century about the Christian documentary record and who wrote it and what it contained that we hardly need to place any stock in. Are you suggesting that it is very possible that Paul wrote a "gospel" about the man he was preaching? Or rather, that he was not preaching, since the epistles themselves scarcely present any such entity in Paul's mind.

By the way, what kind of gospel: a narrative of Jesus' life, or a collection of sayings attributed to Jesus? Or a collection of perceived communications which Paul believed he had received from Christ in heaven, or such a collection put together well after Paul's death which attributed such things to him? This is all so vague and uncertain, how can we possibly derive anything from it? And if Paul did indeed write a gospel of whatever sort, why does no clear reference to it surface either in Paul himself, in any late 1st century or early 2nd century record? Your 'universal assumption' comes much too late (its belief in certain circles at the end of 2nd century is hardly a "beachhead" tantamount to D-Day), preceded by a telling silence on any such thing. Sound familiar?

Earl Doherty
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Old 01-01-2013, 02:24 PM   #48
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But I don't understand that we assume that if it is Clement writing in 180 CE the understanding he has can only be as old as the ink drying on the page. He is referencing countless witnesses (Marcion, Basilides, Valentinus, Carpocrates, Prodicus, etc) who reinforce the Paul wrote the gospel paradigm. He too seems to at least acknowledge that Paul had a gospel text in his possession. The critical piece of evidence from all I have cited:

"You have heard the injunction of the Law. ‘You shall not commit adultery.’ I say, ‘You shall not lust.’"

This a variant of what is quoted as the Marcionite Question of the Rich Man:
Quote:
'One said unto him, Good master, what shall I do to inherit eternal life? He replied, Call not thou me good. One is good, God.' Marcion added, 'the Father,' and instead of, 'Thou knowest the commandments,' says, 'I know the commandments. [Epiphanius Scholion 50]

"Thou knowest," says He, "the commandments." ... "Sell all that thou hast ... And come," says He, "follow me." [Tertullian Against Marcion 4.36.7]

"And again, regarding that rich [man] who came before our Lord, and said to him, 'What shall I do that I may inherit life eternal?'. Our Lord says to him, 'You shall not commit adultery.'" [Aphraates Demonstrates 20]

For if when he said 'Do not commit adultery' they did go on committing adultery, how much more if he had commanded them to commit adultery ! [Ephrem Against Mani p. 192 Mitchell]

You have heard it said, You shall not commit adultery. But I say to you, that whoever looks and lusts after has committed adultery [Ephrem Commentary on the Diatessaron p. 113]
Notice the Syriac Diatessaron lacks the 'woman' reference. It is a related development to Clement's text.
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Old 01-01-2013, 02:36 PM   #49
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Correct.
The vast majority.
Gurugeorge is correct. outhouse is not--yet another unsourced error. For example, Paul is mentioned in Wiki "Gospel of Mark" only as Mark's companion in Rome. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gospel_of_Mark
Your going off topic with your mistake in promoting Mark as the author.

My statement stands.
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Old 01-01-2013, 02:42 PM   #50
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I just noticed that Ephrem quotes the saying exactly as Clemenr had it on p. 111

Thanks Earl. It always useful to have discussions
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