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Originally Posted by MiddleMan
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rebutted here:
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Originally Posted by Brett Palmer
History is the aggregate of past events as best as can be chronologically arranged from the available evidence.
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this is clearly a slippery slope. available evidence is constantly changing.
furthermore, ancient history often suffers from a lack of information or inaccurate information.
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Originally Posted by Brett Palmer
Therefore, to claim to study the “practical historicity” of the exodus event within the context of what is claimed in the Bible is also to commit oneself to a study of the Bible in the context of its own claimed historical setting.
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not necessarily. there are multiple aspects of an event such as the exodus that can be analyzed apart from archaeology.
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Originally Posted by Brett Palmer
To sanitize their study by refusing to look at the archaeology of the ancient Near East is to sever a huge mountain of evidence.
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"huge mountain of evidence" might be an overstatement.
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Originally Posted by Brett Palmer
There is no evidence whatsoever for the ancient growth rate of any population.
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then why all the analysis regarding the literal numbers of hebrews in egypt?
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Originally Posted by Brett Palmer
Here, some inerrantists believe they have found a loophole through which virtually any discrepancy in the Bible can fit.
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it's not a "loophole". it is a real possibility.
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Originally Posted by Brett Palmer
The biblical inerrantist, using Dr. Humphreys’ reasoning, may still claim divine inspiration of the Bible while excusing the literal reading of the population figure of 2-3 million.
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it is as literal as any other reading. being different doesn't mean that it's not literal.
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Originally Posted by Brett Palmer
By finding “natural” explanations for the extraordinary biblical stories, Dr. Humphreys has virtually taken away from the inerrantist the ability to claim Yahweh’s supernatural authority over history, nature and, ultimately, humankind.
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not at all. knowing a naturalistic explanation in no way guarantees that it would have happened or that it would have happened in that way.
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Originally Posted by Brett Palmer
Dr. Humphreys may feel this is a reasonable assumption given that he has accepted the biblical assertion that the Hebrews under intense forced labor nonetheless “multiplied greatly,” but studies detailed above indicate he would be wrong.
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no, they do not. all they do is illustrate what occurred in other instances. the real question is what reasons exist to doubt that the population increased during the captivity.
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Originally Posted by Brett Palmer
People under enormous stress and hardship do not tend to multiply greatly.
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but may have in this case. this article is really going astray here. palmer seems to be referring back to the previous section of large population figures. humphrey does not support that case.
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Originally Posted by Brett Palmer
It is plain that Dr. Humphreys, like Holding & Hardaway above, has not taken into consideration the rich details offered by such relevant disciplines as archaeology and anthropology in considering the practical application of his mathematics.
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humphreys has less of an accountability to those issues because he advocates a smaller population. i guess this escaped palmer.
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Originally Posted by Brett Palmer
I simply cannot comment with much authority on the interpretation of Hebrew words or terms.
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then why bother with this article?
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Originally Posted by Brett Palmer
I am not a Hebrew scholar but it must also be noted that neither is Dr. Humphreys.
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it is not necessary to be a "hebrew scholar" to analyze the various interpretations of an ancient hebrew word or to study the works of hebrew scholars.
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Originally Posted by Brett Palmer
Because I do not wish to get into a detailed study of whether or not ‘eleph should be rendered “thousand” or “troop” here based solely on an understanding of ancient Hebrew–other than to note that one should hold in high suspicion arguments concerning the meaning of ‘eleph when such arguments try to reduce the overall numbers of those involved in the exodus to something more rationally credible.
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this is a completely biased, unscholarly and dishonest conclusion. humphreys goes to the trouble of analyzing the word used in the original language and palmer simply brushes that off and then concludes that such analysis is suspicious. in my opinion, this statement absolutely undermines any credibility the article might have had. it should be noted that it would seem appropriate to render the word to mean "troop"
when referring to troops, as in numbers 1:46.
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Originally Posted by Brett Palmer
This is assigning an intention to the original authors that the argument cannot possibly know as fact.
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no, it is trying to square the biblical account with what we know outside of the bible.
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Originally Posted by Brett Palmer
Such an argument is mere speculation.
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but a very reasonable speculation. one that happens to work quite well
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Originally Posted by Brett Palmer
I leave it to the reader to decide who has presented the more acceptable argument; Dr. Humphreys or Keil & Delitzch. I, of course, do not believe either of the figures to be accurate, given the legendary nature of the tale itself and what current archaeological data offers as to Israelites origins.
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palmer has done nothing to show that the tale is legendary. therefore, it is quite clear that his conclusions are highly suspect.
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Originally Posted by Brett Palmer
While Dr. Humphreys may be assumed to have successfully argued that the “original” copies of Numbers had “troop” instead of “thousand” interpreted for ‘eleph, this theory does not explain the large population number given in the book of Exodus—also believed to have been authored by Moses according to most biblical inerrantists.
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which wasn't his intent, or course. he stated that
another, later person took a different meaning of the word.
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Originally Posted by Brett Palmer
Knowing that 3000 shekels is needed to constitute a talent, we can calculate that there were 603,550 half shekels collected from those “counted in the census,” a number matching exactly the population figure given in Numbers 1:46. [17] However, recall that Dr. Humphreys suggests that the word ‘eleph found in Numbers should be translated “troop,” not “thousand.” Doing so, then, renders the passages from Exodus 38 as a complete contradiction to the passage from Numbers. It would seem, however, that the author of Exodus believed the population figure in Numbers was literally “about 600,000 men” (Ex. 12:37) and reflected exactly the census numbers found in Numbers 1:46 in his verse 38:25-26. The conundrum facing the biblical inerrantist is therefore laid bare. If the inerrantist tries to claim, as does Dr. Humphreys, that there was an editorial mistake in the book of Numbers and that the word ‘eleph should be translated “troops” instead of “thousand,” how then do they account for the exact match in numerical calculations presented in Exodus 38:25-26 which conclude the monetary contribution from the congregation of male Israelites is 603,550?
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here palmer is moving the goalposts. he is trying to pin humphreys down to a different interpretation of the word than the one he has chosen. if humphreys proposes to interpret the word as "troop", then the numbers of people are not known specifically. if that is the case, the numbers of people at the time of the census
could have been 600,000 which might have included people who weren't 20 who then became 20 and received military training as well as the "others" with the israelities who might have joined their military.
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Originally Posted by Brett Palmer
The author of Exodus (most biblical inerrantists assume this was Moses) makes a calculation that takes literally the (“current”) rendering of ‘eleph in the book of Numbers (also assumed by inerrantists to have been authored by Moses). If the same author is responsible for both books, how could he have meant ‘eleph to mean “thousand” in Exodus but “troops” in Numbers?
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the census passages in exodus 30 and 38 state that the
tributes were taken from
all people who were over the age of 20, not just military-age males as palmer seems to be implying. nothing in numbers contradicts this. it merely refers to the census, not the tribute. if that were indeed everyone, then the total number of the israelites would be 600 hundred thousand plus an unknown number of people under the age of 20. the unknown number could be as low as 100,000 or as high as several hundred thousand. in either case, the total number of people is much, much less than 3 million.
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Originally Posted by Brett Palmer
Secondly, such an argument assumes that there was an isolated scribe (or school of scribes) who, in copying from the “originals,” misunderstood the intention of ‘eleph and interpreted it falsely. This argument obviously assumes, but does not postulate how, this scribe (or group of scribes) was ignorant of the term ‘eleph as it related to “troop” and so mistook it for “thousand.”
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i can't understand why palmer is assuming that the scibes he refers to would be writing in a language other than hebrew. therefore, they didn't change the word in question, they wrote 'eleph. the question is in the translation to a language other than hebrew.
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Originally Posted by Brett Palmer
Why would one believe the “original” manuscripts to have been delivered by divine inspiration without error, but that copies of these originals were allowed to conform to the frailty of human imperfection?
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as of now, there are no known errors in the bible. there are instances that are suspected scribal errors, but that's an indictment, not a conviction. it is believed that the original texts in the original language were written inerrantly. translations to other languages are often difficult because there are instances where a direct correspondence can't be drawn. that is why there are multiple english translations that range from strictly word for word (which can be awkward) to liberal (preserving the spirit of the text).
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Originally Posted by Brett Palmer
If it is argued that later editors made mistakes in copying the inspired word, how can this Yahweh be omniscient or omnipotent and yet be unable to protect his own work?
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occasionally, new information comes along that sheds light on some of these issues. it would thus seem presumptuous to state that God isn't, or is incapable of, protecting the inerrancy of the bible.
it is disappointing that someone who writes for the ilk of the skeptical review would portray the bible as having many more of these alleged discrepancies than it actually does. it has been well documented that the bible has a miniscule amount of inconsequential differences between extant copies, including the dead sea scrolls, which is a miracle in itself. the bible's reliability is unprecedented when compared to other documents from antiquity, and even later, that have been copied by human hands. it would seem that his comment about God not providentially watching over the bible is spurious.
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Originally Posted by Brett Palmer
An inerrantist claiming this viewpoint may say that behind the numbers we find in the text today lay the true population figures. The numbers have simply been inflated for literary and theological purposes. For example, an inerrantist might theorize that the population figure of 603,550 found in Numbers 1:46 is actually the true population figure multiplied by 100. Other population figures may also have been multiplied by 100 or perhaps in some cases by 10. Other inerrantists of this thinking may not attribute a mathematical formula to arrive at the “true” numbers of the exodus, but may simply assert that the numbers as they are presently given are hyperbolic and leave it at that, not speculating on the “real” exodus numbers. Either inerrantist will claim that the inflated figures were inspired by Yahweh to be included in the text as a literary device understood by the ancient audience. This literary device simply underscored the miraculous power of the almighty. There is no reason for modern readers to get excited or bothered over the exaggerated figures since they need only be understood as an ancient literary device. To understand this device accurately, they may claim, modern readers need simply to encounter the text within its ancient Semitic context.
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this is certainly a possibility, although it seems to carry the least explanatory weight for us in our current culture. it seems that certain numbers, such as 40, were sometimes used as a literary device by the ancient hebrews much like we might say "i've told you a million times".
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Originally Posted by Brett Palmer
But what trouble this “literary device” has caused! Clearly, there is no indicator in the texts of Exodus or Numbers that the population figures are to be understood as hyperbole.
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...to us, as i just said. with the awareness of that practice in that culture, we can see how it might be a possibility. to us, such exaggeration is unacceptable. to them, it was not uncommon and not unacceptable.
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Originally Posted by Brett Palmer
Skeptics and believers alike have read the narratives over the centuries as literal figures of the exodus population. Many skeptics have rejected scripture based partly on the absurdity of these numbers. I would imagine that some believers have lost their faith because they found that the numbers in Exodus and Numbers were historical impossibilities. They reason (rightly, in my opinion) that if the Lord could not get the facts of the exodus straight, how could they trust the Lord in more “important” matters?
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people are free to reject christianity on pretty much any grounds they desire. however, it should be clear from this response that there are multiple, reasonable explanations for our current lack of clarity regarding these issues. if someone were to genuinely study the issues, that would be apparent. concordantly, the bible is not the only source of contact with christianity. it would seem illogical to reject christianity on that ground alone.
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Originally Posted by Brett Palmer
How do we know when hyperbole ends in scripture and a literal reading begins?
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by studying as much as we can.
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Originally Posted by Brett Palmer
Even though there is no clear indication in the texts themselves that the exodus population figures should be understood as hyperbole, how do these inerrantists nonetheless determine that the numbers are hyperbolic exaggerations? The answer, of course, is the recognition that the numbers are simply too outrageous to be believed.
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completely incorrect. the answer, of course, is the recognition that it was not uncommon for ancient cultures to do so.
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Originally Posted by Brett Palmer
But this is a modern realization. How do the inerrantists determine that the ancients who initially heard these stories understood the figures to be literary devices simply meant to underscore the majesty of their god? As in assigning editorial mistakes to later copyists, this theory is also pure speculation.
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of course it's speculation. the question is whether it is a reasonable speculation or not. we can be as certain of this precedent as we are certain of about most anything from ancient history.
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Originally Posted by Brett Palmer
The only reason modern apologists claim the exodus population figures are hyperbolic exaggerations is because they themselves recognize the absurdity of the numbers.
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strawman
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Originally Posted by Brett Palmer
As William Dever noted in What Did the Biblical Writers Know,
As far as I’m concerned, a clear example of hyperbolic language is found in Genesis 13:6, “I will make your offspring like the dust of the earth; so that if one can count the dust of the earth, your offspring also can be counted.” I may have granted that Exodus 12:37 is hyperbolic language if the rounded number of “about 600,000 men” was not followed in Numbers by an exact figure. If we must consider 603,550 to be a hyperbolic exaggeration I cannot conceive of a single claim made in the Bible--that unless supported by independent, verifiable and objective evidence--that cannot also be viewed as hyperbolic.
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he is certainly welocome to his opinion, but what he hasn't done is refute the claim of hyperbole. i am not stating that hyperbole is the only correct translation. i am saying that dever has done nothing academic to dispel the possibility.
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Originally Posted by Brett Palmer
What of the parting of the Red Sea? Surely such a story also mismatches with historical reality. Is this a case of hyperbole as well? And what of getting water from a rock? Or bread falling from the sky? How about each of the plagues that befell the Egyptians? None of these events occurred in history at least as far as they are recorded in the biblical text nor do such spectacular demonstrations of divine power exist today. Are we safe, therefore, in ascribing to each of these events the label of “hyperbole”? If the criteria for spotting hyperbolic language is the absurdity of the claim, then not even the resurrection of Christ is saved from such a label. I am certain no inerrantist is willing to allow the game to travel this far. Again, then, what are the criteria for determining a particular claim in the Bible is hyperbolic literature and which is not?
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the flaw in his argument is that there is clear precedent from ancient history that
numbers specifically were exaggerated or inflated. that is why the
numbers in exodus/numbers may have been exaggerated. the issue has nothing to do with non-numbers claims of the bible.
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Originally Posted by Brett Palmer
Another question arises considering the argument that the population figures for the exodus are hyperbolic exaggerations. Why did the omniscient deity inspire the text to be written in such a fashion?
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if i were supporting the hyperbole explanation, i would say that God allowed it because it was common to them. additionally, we even know today that it was common to them. therefore, what is the problem in allowing it?
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Originally Posted by Brett Palmer
Why did this deity allow the expression of his story to be clouded from future generations by men writing in ancient literary forms?
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clouded is a very subjective term. the issue isn't clouded for many people.
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Originally Posted by Brett Palmer
Was it not possible, or did it not occur to the god, to have the text written in unambiguous language?
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for many people, it is unambiguous. the real question is why is it ambiguous to palmer? what would he have preferred?
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Originally Posted by Brett Palmer
Did the culture that produced the original text not write in ways that simply expressed the bare truth of a given situation?
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to them, that was the truth. palmer is suffering from culture confusion.
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Originally Posted by Brett Palmer
The problem is compounded when it is realized that this claim of hyperbolic language used for the population figures of the exodus was a claim completely unknown to those intimately familiar with the text in the ancient world. For example, St. Ephrem the Syrian (303-373 CE), an early Church Father, wrote, “Six hundred thousand men left Rameses, and made camp at Succoth. The time they spent in Egypt amounted to four hundred and thirty years.” [18] Clearly the employment of hyperbolic language was lost on the early Church and yet modern apologists seem to be the recipients of this renewed knowledge.
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not surprising considering the advances in archaeology and the amount of archaeological finds.
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Originally Posted by Brett Palmer
Modern apologists seem to have been able to figure out the literary intentions of the ancient writers which went unnoticed for generations of pious scholars. How do modern apologists recognize the hyperbolic language of the text when ancient authors such as St. Ephrem the Syrian did not?
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we have access to lots of information he did not have access to.
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Originally Posted by Brett Palmer
It seems impossible that modern apologists are insightful enough via the Holy Spirit to see into the past and reconstruct the “original” intention of the text, even if it is claimed that this is done under approved academic disciplines, while such academic gymnastics could have been avoided by the omniscient deity via a plain inspiration of the text, free of culturally and temporally bound literary conventions in the first place.
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whoa. where to begin. first, palmer makes a contradictory statement. he claims that apologists are not authoritative enough to make such assertions but then acknowledges that they are doing so using the best academic methods and information available. second, he claims they use academic gymnastics but does not state
how they are allegedly doing so which makes his claim hollow and question-begging. third, he is using smuggled-in authority to make the judgement that apologists are using academic gymnastics yet not acknowledging that he himself is using the same, but opposite, gymnastics in criticizing the text. fourth, it is not indicative that God has avoided protecting the inspiration of the text just because palmer is unable to understand the scope of possibilities regarding the issues addressed in this article. fifth, palmer invokes a "plain inspiration" of the text but doesn't provide a standard for "plain" and inconceivably omits how to tell whether a text is inspired. such a statement is frought with complications and subjectivity. last, palmer makes the ridiculous assertion that a text could be free of cultural influence. how in the world could such a text, one that purports to record the history of an ancient people, do such a thing? palmer, conveniently, omits such an explanation. what palmer also omits is that even though we have a different culture and live in a different time, we are not ignorant of their cultural practices and are able to proffer multiple translations of their documents into our language based on such knowledge.
it's astonishing how many false conclusions he was able to fit into one sentence. that's got to be some kind of record.
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Originally Posted by Brett Palmer
But the argument for hyperbolic exaggeration of the exodus numbers seems to imply that Yahweh was somehow held captive by this ancient literary device when inspiring his authors to write his text. It seems as though it was not possible for the deity to inspire his authors to not only write plainly for an ancient audience but also in anticipation for an audience that would appear after the Enlightenment.
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if we were completely unaware of the hyperbolic possibility, then palmer might have a point. since he is citing that exact device, it presupposes that he/we are aware of it thus showing that God was not bound by that culture and time.
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Originally Posted by Brett Palmer
Before closing it is very important to note that the primary reason offered for the hyperbole argument or the new ‘eleph translation of the numbers hypothesis is precisely because it is recognized by modern students of the biblical text that the numbers are simply outrageous.
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quite false. they are the product of study of the ancient hebrews and other ancient cultures. there is an aspect of the population growth that palmer never addressed. he was baffled at how the hebrews could have propagated so prodiguously. if there was an omnipotent deity watching over them, He could have easily arranged for a temporary abatement of the customary difficulties regarding procreation thus allowing them to expand their population quite easily.
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Originally Posted by Brett Palmer
Contrary to Holding & Hardaway’s assertion, the numbers do strain credulity.
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only if you can prove there is no God. good luck with that.
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Originally Posted by Brett Palmer
The figures do not reflect history.
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not
typical history. but palmer has done absolutely nothing to show that such an occurrence is completely impossible.
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Originally Posted by Brett Palmer
The trouble with the figures only became an issue when modern historical research showed such numbers to be impossible.
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no modern research has shown such a thing. this is a completely elephant-hurling statement and clearly demonstrates the lack of academic equity of the article.