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Old 03-19-2006, 02:43 PM   #11
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Originally Posted by jjramsey
I doubt the Synoptic Gospels were written in the 2nd century simply because they contained predictions that the kingdom of God would come in power within the lifetime of some of Jesus' audience. Hope that this prediction would pan out could be maintained in the first century, but by the second century, there would be few if any left of Jesus' audience still alive, and this hope would have been thwarted.
I wouldn't place this as a criteria. I doubt that the everyone Jesus spoke to was alive when Mark was written. I do think it was before the second century, I just wouldn't use that criterion.
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Old 03-19-2006, 02:49 PM   #12
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I doubt that the everyone Jesus spoke to was alive when Mark was written.
I do, too, but the prediction was that some (not that all) standing before Jesus would not die before certain things came to pass (9.1), that the generation would not have completely passed away (13.30), that certain opponents would still be alive to see it happen (14.62).

Anyone positing a very late date for Mark and company needs to explain why the evangelists would place a prediction that was already demonstrably false on the lips of Jesus.

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Old 03-19-2006, 03:06 PM   #13
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Anyone positing a very late date for Mark and company needs to explain why the evangelists would place a prediction that was already demonstrably false on the lips of Jesus.
Well, if Mark were late, than there wouldn't be so much of a doubt that he knew Paul. And if Mark knew Paul, than Galatians explains that answer. Futhermore, there would be a chance that Mark knew 2 Peter, which also deals with the issue.
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Old 03-19-2006, 05:22 PM   #14
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Originally Posted by Chris Weimer
And if Mark knew Paul, than Galatians explains that answer.
That sounds interesting. Please explain.

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Futhermore, there would be a chance that Mark knew 2 Peter, which also deals with the issue.
2 Peter is clearly reacting to a prediction that was (widely?) expected to have been fulfilled at or by a certain time, but apparently was not. For my money, Mark 9.1; 13.30; 14.62 fit the bill nicely. If they do not, then what does?

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Old 03-19-2006, 05:41 PM   #15
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Originally Posted by Ben C Smith
That sounds interesting. Please explain.
No it doesn't. Please excuse me on this for a while until I can find what I was looking for. (And I'm not even sure what that was. )

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2 Peter is clearly reacting to a prediction that was (widely?) expected to have been fulfilled at or by a certain time, but apparently was not. For my money, Mark 9.1; 13.30; 14.62 fit the bill nicely. If they do not, then what does?
Sure it does. I buy the story, remember? But if 2 Peter didn't have a problem with the predictions, perhaps neither did Mark.
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Old 03-19-2006, 06:20 PM   #16
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But if 2 Peter didn't have a problem with the predictions, perhaps neither did Mark.
2 Peter has no problem (per se) with the predictions because it has reinterpreted the timescale with an OT equation (1 day = 1000 years).

Mark 9.1 et alii have no problem with the predictions, either, but apparently without having to work any reinterpretive magic. How is this to be explained? The smoothest answer is because the designated time had run out when 2 Peter was written, but it had not yet run out when Mark wrote.

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Old 03-19-2006, 06:25 PM   #17
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Mark 9.1 et alii have no problem with the predictions, either, but apparently without having to work any reinterpretive magic. How is this to be explained? The smoothest answer is because the designated time had run out when 2 Peter was written, but it had not yet run out when Mark wrote.
I'm fairly certain I could work recreative magic on some parts of Mark to make it align with my presumed theory.

It takes so much more work, though, no wonder I opt for the easy route.
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Old 03-27-2006, 02:00 AM   #18
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Originally Posted by Chris Weimer
Well, if Mark were late, than there wouldn't be so much of a doubt that he knew Paul.
Is there a doubt that Mark knew Paul ?

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Old 03-27-2006, 07:17 AM   #19
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Default a legit concern

It seems to me that the underlying question behind the patchwork gospels relates to what date the documents reached their final form. That is a legitimate concern, whether or not the theory of second century authorship overstates its case.

Having been a seminary student in the 80s, and deeply ensconced in the inner circle of a denonimation for most of the 90s, what I remember is that typically when Xns speak of the gospels, like Mark, they assume that the Mark in their NT is the exact same as it was when it was written in the first century. That is the other extreme the patchwork idea mitigates against.
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Old 03-27-2006, 08:37 AM   #20
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Originally Posted by Chris Weimer
I doubt that the everyone Jesus spoke to was alive when Mark was written.
Not least the criminal hanging on the next cross, who may not have been alive at that time, however early you date Mark.

All the best,

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