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Old 05-13-2007, 10:35 PM   #41
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Thanks for digging that up! We can be friends again now.
De nada
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Old 05-14-2007, 12:24 AM   #42
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So you agreed with the anonymous expert? Okay. It's a big "so what?" at that point. You, me, and the Don are left with conflicting expert testimonies (and on the one side I don't have primarily Carrier in mind, though he is an expert in ancient history). Do we play favorites among them? Quote one against the other?
What experts? Carrier is not an archaeologist and neither is Bagatti.
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I would suggest that we either content ourselves with our perplexion or seek to know as much as the experts know about a particular subdomain of their field.
Agreed.
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You would have done better to engage Carrier directly in that thread, if you indeed knew that he was wrong on a number of issues. He might have responded if it weren't a raving, insulting piece of work signed by noone.
Carrier was equally insulting and the mods had to delete insults from his post so insults are not the issue here because the debate had degenerated to that. Anyone who wants to know where matters stand - in terms of archaeological evidence and Carrier's claims and not in terms of moral quality or social issues, can read the post for themselves. Carrier's blunders regarding the claim of quarrying amongst other glaring mistakes, clearly expose his deficient understanding of the relevant matters in that thread. I think he was mistaken and I regret that the discussion degenerated like it did. But I am equally glad that he never took it personal and we are friends.

In any event, I got a copy of Evolution of the Synagogue: Problems and Progress, Edited by Howard Clark Kee and Lynn H. Cochick (1999) (which is a key resource for arguments against[and pro] and Richard Oster's article which is an important for arguments for 1st cent CE Synagogues) and and the arguments transcend some silly calcite columns -that Amos Kloner mentions - there are linguistic and cultural issues regarding the nature of first century synagogues and the manner in which word synagogue evolved in meaning over time.

In starting the debate, first, one must distinguish between the 1st, 4th century, and even modern synagogue see Anders Runesson's The Nature and Origins of the 1st-Century Synagogue (this should be online at Bible Interp - its been quite a while since I stopped looking at this matter). And in doing so, one must not, without evidence, treat "synagogue" as an architectural edifice in the first century as Runesson does. Doing so, for example leads him to conclude that excavated buildings, like the Jericho edifice excavated by Netzer with a triclinium (a dining hall), was a synagogue.

The English word synagogue can refer to two different Greek words. One is sunagoge, which means assembly or house of assembly and the other is proseuche which means house of prayer and Runesson notes this. A careful study of the documentary record indicates that there were several terms used in antiquity to refer to gatherings places of pious Jews. These terms included “proseuche, proseuterion, eucheion, sabbataiou, hagios topos, hieron, ho oikos, didaskaleion” (A good resource for the relationship between synagogue and proseuche is Martin Hengel’s “Proseuche and Synagoggue” in Tradition und Glaube: Das fruhe Christentum in seiner Umwelt, Fetschrift fur K.G. Kuhn, ed. G Jeremias, H Kuhn and H Stegemann (Gottingen: Vandenhoeck, & Ruprecht, 1971), 157-83; repr. in The Synagogue: Studies in Origins, Archaeology and Architecture, ed. J Gutmann, 1975, P.25-74). Kee (op. cit) concludes that an analysis of Jewish writings of the post Maccabean period indicates that the dominant meaning of the word synagogue is “assembly” or “community” (Prov 21:16 refers to a gathering of monsters. Gen 1:9, Lev 11:36 gathering of waters. Job 8:17 gathering of stones. It also refers to a group of people such as Chasidim (1 Macc 2:42) and the scribes (1 Macc 7:12)). Josephus’ usages of the word synagogue include his encounter with various groups in Tiberias where “everyone came together” (synagontai hapantes) in a large oikema able to accommodate a large crowd (Life 277). The term oikema in Greek literature can mean “storehouse”, “dwelling”, “animal cage”, “brothel”, or “dwelling”. This demonstrates that he used the word synagogue to mean the gathering itself, and not the facility where the gathering took place Even in Antiquities (19. 299-307) he narrates about how a Roman Legate, Petronius wrote in a letter of protest about the defilement of the Jewish place of gathering (synagogue). By placing a statue of Caesar, the leading men of Dora prevented Jews from being a synagogue. He refers to a place, not a building.

Knowing that, what were synagogues used for? (search in the thread earlier mentioned and find Carrier's rather limited answer to this question). Runesson writes that synagogues were associated with liturgical practices, like reading and teaching of the Torah (Carrier's answer), use as council halls , storage , taking communal meals , holding court proceedings , meetings and assemblies .

Where does the problem emerge from? In From Politics to Piety: The Emergence of Pharisaic Judaism (1973), Jacob Neusner illustrated the unwarranted tendency of scholars to read later developments in the rabbinic movement to earlier times and it is from this that Kee critically reviews how several scholars have interpreted archaeological digs and incorrectly presumed them to be synagogues without adequate reasons.

In Defining the First Century Synagogue, Kee (op. cit. p.9) examines the process through which the Theodotus inscription, which was found by Raimond Weill in southern Jerusalem in 1914, has been used by several Biblical scholars to erect a "highly dubious scholarly construct: the supposed architectural and institutional synagogue of the first century C.E." This dubious construction proceeded from Levine’s work and from the work of Adolf Deissman who attempted to date the Theodotus inscription based on questionable assumptions.

Using Josephus, Acts and Ezra, Levine (Lee J. Levine, Ancient Synagogues Revealed (1981)) described the features of ancient synagogues as including regular prayers, study, sacred meals, safekeeping of communal funds, hostel, general assembly hall and serving as residence for synagogue officials.

But dining rooms, lodgings and other facilities for visitors are not mentioned in the Theodotus inscription. Deissman asserted that because the inscription was in Greek and in characters of the early Roman period, it must have been written before 70 A.D. He was relying on Emil Schurer’s hypothesis that no Jew could settle in Jerusalem, or build any structure there . Deissman also asserted that the inscription pointed to an “undisturbed stream of pilgrims and an unbroken continuity of the congregation’s office-bearers” and such pilgrimages likely took place in the pre-70 period. A later edition of Schurer dropped these bland assumptions regarding the inscription but still retained the first century dating of the artifact. In Judaism from Cyrus to Hadrian, Lester Grabbe relies on Deissman’ shaky hypothesis to conclude that synagogues existed in Palestine pre-70 A.D.

Quote:
Thus, a number of New Testament scholars have proceeded to make incorrect assumptions regarding the Theodotus inscription. Kee notes (ibid):
Just as the traditional pious and scholarly assumptions about “normative Judaism” have been challenged by scholars investigating postbiblical Judaism, so current analytical archaeological methods demand a careful assessment of this discovery of an inscribed stone slab in a junk-filled cistern that was part of a Roman bath complex. Metaphorically, on this single inscribed stone has been erected a highly dubious scholarly construct: the supposed architectural and institutional synagogue in the first century C.E.
Regarding the Calcile columns Carrier talks about, I would refer you to Joseph Gutmann's , The Synagogue: Studies in Origins, Archaeology and Architecture (1975) who argues that for a structure to qualify as a synagogue, it should have "proof of piety or of a definite place of worship other than the wishful thinking of the excavators." What we see being done by people like Reed and Finegan with regard to archaeological evidence of 1st cent CE in the absence of distinct architectural features, is what Hachlili (Rachel Hachlili, in Anchor Bible Dictionary (1992), 447-54) calls local "extemporization" - they base their conclusions to "similarity to each other in architectural plan and, therefore, in function, even though no actual proof has been discovered."

The last paper I lacked and which I needed to read in order to be in a position to write a balanced article on this subject was Oster, Richard E. Supposed Anachronism in Luke-Acts’ Use of SUNAGWGH: A Rejoinder to H. C. Kee. New Testament Studies 39 (1993) 178-208 which I asked for here. I did get it and perhaps I should sit the fuck down already and write an essay on this matter.

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Originally Posted by Peter Kirby View Post
The proof by link here is disappointing.
Am sure you can handle the disappointment so I am not too worried. In any case, my respect for him aside, I think Carrier is wrong on this one. This does not necessarily mean that there were no synagogues as architectural edifices in the first century Nazareth (which can be argued), but Carrier's arguments are incorrect.
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Old 05-14-2007, 12:51 AM   #43
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For Peter's benefit - and those that dont like links being offered as responses.
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Originally Posted by Richard Carrier
[A]rchaeology has confirmed a stone building in Nazareth of the size and type to be a synagogue, and it dates from the time of Christ. See the entry in the Archaeological Encyclopedia of the Holy Land...
This doesnt mean squat. See Hachlili's comments in my previous post regarding local extemporization.
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Originally Posted by Richard Carrier
The evidence is insurmountable that there were numerous permanent structures--most of Nazareth's buildings even before the 1st century were partially carved from the rock of the hill, in a manner similar to Pella...
Carrier waffles when asked to define what a "permanent structure" is. If its not an architectural edifice, it is irrelevant. It it is a cave, naturally occuring or otherwise, it is still not relevant.
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Originally Posted by Richard Carrier
I was able to track down on my own the most extensive report, that of Bagatti (Excavations in Nazareth, vol. 1, 1969), and I looked through all the subsequent reports on Nazareth from Excavations and Surveys in Israel, and this is what I found:
Bagatti is not an expert and has only been elevated to that expert status by NT scholars who are eager to confirm their own beliefs. He is a sociologist and if you read my previous post, you will see that there are several archaologists who have equally been interested in the subject and they do not rely on Bagatti as Carrier does.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Richard Carrier
(a) Very little of Nazareth has been excavated, and therefore no argument can be advanced regarding what "wasn't" there in the 1st century.
Consider the following response:
Quote:
[Carrier's argument] is used to explain an absence of artifacts and necessary contexts being observed and documented when the town was largely unpopulated and open for excavation. I would remind Carrier (and others) that a site is considered extensively excavated long before intrusions have been made into even ten percent of its surface area. Beyond this, salvage digs have been legally required in Israel for nearly fifty years, and the vast majority of Nazareths urban development has occurred in subjection to these laws. Besides, one CAN conduct extensive excavations beneath an established, densely populated urban center, as the case of Jerusalem and my own experiences in Los Angeles amply demonstrate, and Nazareth has, in fact, been excavated in the past few decades (by both amateurs and professionals). With the salvage digs, private excavations, and early fieldwork combined, we can honestly say that Nazareth has been extensively excavated, and thereby conclude that the primary and secondary contexts Carrier asserts are, in fact, non-existent.
All of this is rendered somewhat moot, however, by the fact that the location deemed to be "Old" or "Biblical" Nazareth has been well excavated by all accounts, and if the suggestion is that the town has moved or was originally located elsewhere, then the game is over. What we are discussing is the existence of a town that has been established and certified by all church authorities to be the Gospel Nazareth from the fourth century onward, and the argument that Nazareth must be found in other (as yet unexcavated) locations makes the concurrent statement that the Gospel Nazareth was unknown to locals in the first centuries CE. Either way, 1st century CE Nazareth becomes a phantom, and we can safely discount its historicity along with the Gospel accounts that assert it.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Richard Carrier
(b) Archaeological reports confirm that stones and bricks used in earlier buildings in Nazareth were reused in later structures, thus erasing a lot of the evidence.
If the evidence is erased, then ipso facto, there is no evidence. No evidence, no positive claims - remember that the burden of proof is on him.
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Originally Posted by Richard Carrier
Therefore, it is faulty reasoning to argue that there were no brick or stone structures simply because we have not recovered them from the relevant strata
This is not an argument. He has to prove that what was "erased" supports his claims. Again, I refer you to Hachlili.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Richard Carrier
(c) One example of the above includes four calcite column bases, which were reused in a later structure, but are themselves dated before the War by their stylistic similarity to synagogues and Roman structures throughout 1st century Judaea, and by the fact that they contain Nabataean lettering (which suggests construction before Jewish priests migrated to Nazareth after the war). This is not iron clad proof of a 1st century synagogue (since the pieces had been moved and thus could not be dated by strata), but it does demonstrate a very high probability--especially since calcite bases are cheap material compared to the more expensive marble of structures archaeologists confirmed started appearing there around a century later, i.e. by the end of the 1st century AD (or early 2nd century at the latest, since marble fragments have been found inscribed in Aramaic that is paleographically dated to this period), and more extensively again in the 3rd century (when a very impressive Jewish synagogue was built there, this time using marble, which was later converted to Christian use).
This is wrong first of all because it uses post 2nd century architectural forms of synagogue to identify first century synagogues - As Hachlili notes, they base their conclusions to "similarity to each other in architectural plan and, therefore, in function, even though no actual proof has been discovered."
Secondly, there is no proof of piety demonstrated.
Thirdly, we have to consider the following:
Quote:
Now, relative to these bases (if that is indeed what they are), I invite you further to consider the fact that there are no full inscriptions on them, only work marks. Since Nabatean is only a slightly adapted form of Aramaic, I would challenge anyone to tell me on what uniform bases all 1st century CE Nabatean work marks can be positively discerned from Aramaic ones (I know a specialist in the field who affirms that it is sometimes difficult to distinguish between Nabatean and Aramaic in fully developed texts if they have been removed from their native contexts). Even if we accept that these work marks are Nabatean, however, that still does not render any assistance in dating these items.

It must be remembered that the Romans annexed Nabatea in 106CE, after which Trajan began an extraordinary effort to expand trade throughout the region. He constructed a highway connecting Damascus with the Red Sea, and a trunk of this branched off to the Mediterranean through Galilee. We know that Nabateans came north and west with this work, into regions that included Galilee. We also know that Nabatean colonists came into Galilee as a result of Hadrians effort to de-Judaize Palestine following the Bar Kochba revolt some years later. How can anyone know that the calcite bases cannot be attributed to these later activities? How does anyone know what their provenance is at all? I have never seen a single shred of evidence that even remotely requires these bases to be Herodian; they could just as easily have been manufactured either locally or in Nabatea at any time into the third century. Resultantly, I find no good reason to throw the balance of good, discernible evidence into the trash just to accommodate the whimsy that others choose to attach to these objects.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Richard Carrier
(d) I confirmed beyond any doubt that Nazareth was built on a hill--more specifically, down the slope of a hill, with a convenient "brow" roughly one city block away from the edge of the ancient town as so-far determined archaeologically. Because the town was built down the slope of a hill, we have found numerous examples of houses, tombs, and storage rooms half cut into the rock of the hill, leaving a diagonal slope for structures to be built up around them to complete the chambers (as I described above). Since these structural elements were so completely removed and apparently reused by later builders, no evidence remains of what they were composed of (whether mud, brick, or stone).
The response to this is as follows:
Quote:
There is no cliff proximate to Old Nazareth and the city is not built upon a hill, as is necessary for Lukes account to be accurate. The rolling summit of the nearest prominence, Jebel Kafza, is more than four hundred feet higher than and six hundred linear meters distant from the declared site of the old synagogue, and the presence of active tombs both in Old Nazareth and on the hills northern slope would have prevented a direct ascent. Beyond this, both Luke and Matthew indicate that Jesus was something of a stranger to the congregants at this synagogue, something that would have been impossible within an adult male congregation of far fewer than a hundred people. In short, the topography and proposed cultural setting of Nazareth obviate and contravene the Gospel accounts, and Carrier must be aware of this.
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Originally Posted by Richard Carrier
The bottom line: there is absolutely no doubt that Nazareth existed in the time of Jesus.
Judge for yourselves.
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Old 05-14-2007, 02:43 AM   #44
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Bagatti is not an expert and has only been elevated to that expert status by NT scholars who are eager to confirm their own beliefs. He is a sociologist and if you read my previous post, you will see that there are several archaologists who have equally been interested in the subject and they do not rely on Bagatti as Carrier does.
You are wrong to say that Bagatti is not an expert. In fact Bagatti had a doctorate in archaeology and taught "christian" archaeology in Jerusalem. For his time he was as much of an expert as anyone.


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Old 05-14-2007, 04:12 AM   #45
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You are wrong to say that Bagatti is not an expert. In fact Bagatti had a doctorate in archaeology and taught "christian" archaeology in Jerusalem. For his time he was as much of an expert as anyone.spin
This is interesting. Which university issued him with that doctorate? Which year?
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Old 05-14-2007, 04:33 AM   #46
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This is interesting. Which university issued him with that doctorate? Which year?
Never mind. In 1934 he was awarded the degree of Doctor of Christian Archaeology from Pontifical Institute of Christian Archaeology in Rome.
He taught at the "Studium Theologicum Hierosolymitanum" of the Custody of the Holy Land. My "friend" asserts:
Quote:
That sociologist[Bagatti] was the Franciscan’s primary stratum interruptor and context destroyer at Nazareth, he concludes those speculations must be factual. Carrier seems especially influenced by Bagatti’s retrospections on Nazareth published in 1969, and what Carrier is forgetting is that Bagatti’s reconstructions are incompetent, as one might expect in light of his background and training. As such, Bagatti’s reports have to be mined for data and reconstructed as best one can at second remove, and upon doing so no picture of 1st century occupation within these tombs emerges. It must be noted that funerary finds of the period abound in the spaces that Bagatti deemed “inhabited.” Ultimately, since no disciplinary archaeologist takes the conclusions of Bagatti, Orfali, or Viaud very seriously...
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Old 05-14-2007, 04:36 AM   #47
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Pontifical Institute of Christian Archaeology in Rome. Hmmmm...Isnt that like a Historian who has a Doctorate from Fascist Institute of Nazi History in Germany?
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Old 05-14-2007, 05:02 AM   #48
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Originally Posted by spamandham
You realize of course, the fact that we don't even know where 1st century Nazareth is
Hi spamandham,

And I hope you might have actually read my posts, where I made that specific point. In fact you even quoted me !

"One can make a reasonable assertion that we are not sure of the location of 1st-century Nazareth. (Even whether it was in the Nazareth basin of today or not.)"

This whole thread does exactly what I shared (and it is the modus operandi of Rene Salm as well). Major in the minors. Two quite different questions are mixed up, apparently deliberately.

a) Find and demonstrate the 1st-century location of Nazareth.
b) Did a town of Nazareth exist in the first century.

To deny (b) is what can be called a parody of the skeptic position.
(Except that some folks actually take that position.)

However asking for views on (a) and having a wide diversity of
discussion as to location is totally sound.

Personally I find the view that Nazareth was closer to the Sea
of Galilee to be very interesting. In that case the 4th-century
actions of Constantine's mother Helena wife may have a lot to do
with the identification today since she had a habit of misdirecting
Biblical identifications.

However at this time we really do not know for sure the location
of Nazareth. Nor of Cana and many other NT sites. Which leads
to your other question.

Quote:
Originally Posted by spamandham
Doesn't it seem odd to you that even the early church
didn't know where Nazareth was?
Not particularly. There was an incredible amount of turmoil and destruction in between the time of the life of Jesus and when the efforts to make permanent identifications of NT Biblical sites took hold. And that turmoil included the razing of many towns in Galilee.

Shalom,
Steven
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Old 05-14-2007, 07:24 AM   #49
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Originally Posted by praxeus View Post

a) Find and demonstrate the 1st-century location of Nazareth.
b) Did a town of Nazareth exist in the first century.

To deny (b) is what can be called a parody of the skeptic position.
(Except that some folks actually take that position.)
Skepticism regarding the very existence of Nazareth in the first century follows from the following points:

- The misconstrued prophecy of Matthew 2:23, where the author clearly associates the word 'nazarene' with residency in a city called Nazareth, which has nothing to do with any known prophecies in ancient Jewish scripture. It appears to be a transliteration error.

- The early church didn't even know where Nazareth was

- Nazareth is missing from Josephus' listing of Jewish towns.

- The first record of Nazareth anywhere appears in a legendary story.

- 1st century Nazareth is still AWOL

Given these, why is it unreasonable to be skeptical?
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Old 05-14-2007, 08:07 AM   #50
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Originally Posted by GakuseiDon View Post
According to Richard Carrier, there's no doubt that there was a Nazareth at the time Jesus was supposed to have lived:
http://www.iidb.org/vbb/showthread.p...3&page=8&pp=25
[A]rchaeology has confirmed a stone building in Nazareth of the size and type to be a synagogue, and it dates from the time of Christ. See the entry in the Archaeological Encyclopedia of the Holy Land...

The evidence is insurmountable that there were numerous permanent structures--most of Nazareth's buildings even before the 1st century were partially carved from the rock of the hill, in a manner similar to Pella...

I was able to track down on my own the most extensive report, that of Bagatti (Excavations in Nazareth, vol. 1, 1969), and I looked through all the subsequent reports on Nazareth from Excavations and Surveys in Israel, and this is what I found:

(a) Very little of Nazareth has been excavated, and therefore no argument can be advanced regarding what "wasn't" there in the 1st century.

(b) Archaeological reports confirm that stones and bricks used in earlier buildings in Nazareth were reused in later structures, thus erasing a lot of the evidence. Therefore, it is faulty reasoning to argue that there were no brick or stone structures simply because we have not recovered them from the relevant strata (i.e. one of Hoffman's sources assumed that the absence of this evidence entailed mud-and-thatch housing, but that is fallacious reasoning--especially since no clear evidence of mud-and-thatch housing has been found, either).

(c) One example of the above includes four calcite column bases, which were reused in a later structure, but are themselves dated before the War by their stylistic similarity to synagogues and Roman structures throughout 1st century Judaea, and by the fact that they contain Nabataean lettering (which suggests construction before Jewish priests migrated to Nazareth after the war). This is not iron clad proof of a 1st century synagogue (since the pieces had been moved and thus could not be dated by strata), but it does demonstrate a very high probability--especially since calcite bases are cheap material compared to the more expensive marble of structures archaeologists confirmed started appearing there around a century later, i.e. by the end of the 1st century AD (or early 2nd century at the latest, since marble fragments have been found inscribed in Aramaic that is paleographically dated to this period), and more extensively again in the 3rd century (when a very impressive Jewish synagogue was built there, this time using marble, which was later converted to Christian use).

(d) I confirmed beyond any doubt that Nazareth was built on a hill--more specifically, down the slope of a hill, with a convenient "brow" roughly one city block away from the edge of the ancient town as so-far determined archaeologically. Because the town was built down the slope of a hill, we have found numerous examples of houses, tombs, and storage rooms half cut into the rock of the hill, leaving a diagonal slope for structures to be built up around them to complete the chambers (as I described above). Since these structural elements were so completely removed and apparently reused by later builders, no evidence remains of what they were composed of (whether mud, brick, or stone).

The bottom line: there is absolutely no doubt that Nazareth existed in the time of Jesus.
There are various archeological reasons to believe that a Galilean town of Nazareth existed long before the Gospel references to it. The question that I would be concerned with is whether the Gospel Jesus, who is said to have lived in Nazareth, etc., was a person who ever lived in Nazareth. For instance, he is said to have been born in Bethlehem -- IN ORDER THAT A PROPHESY MAY BE FULFILLED -- but was he really born there or was a myth built around the name of a real town and a prophesy?

Matthew:2-19ff. says that Joseph, the father of Jesus, was told by an angel to return to the land of Israel now that King Herod had died [4 B.C.] and the danger [for Jesus, the newborn king] was over. So, Joseph and his family were heading back to Judea, but they were warned again, and Joseph stopped in Galilee, in the town called Nazareth -- AND SO WAS FULFILLED THE PROPHESY THAT JESUS WOULD BE CALLED NAZARENE. (Indeed, in the Gospels Jesus is called the Nazarene, whether "nazarene" means "of Nazareth" or "of the sect of the Nazarenes.")

In other posts, I pointed out that the biography of Jesus the Messiah is built out of the prophesies or pre-figurations made in the Old Scriptures. But now I find also that various episodes of the life of Jesus the King were also built on prophesies or were newly contrived, as in the case of the Magi coming from the East to bring gifts to a new-born king (Jesus, in the bloodline of David). Is Matthew's genealogy of Jesus a contrived one? Luke genealogy is partly different and, most importantly, Luke says that Jesus was thought to be the (natural) son of Joseph, while Luke himself wants to expound on the idea that Jesus the Messiah was the son of God and Mary.

What is realistic in the biography of Jesus the king is that he was born under Herod and that he was tried and crucified (by popular request) under Pilate. What is realistic in the biography of Jesus the Messiah is that he preached the imminent end of the world and told parables about the Kingdom of Heaven or of God. Everything else is wrapped in myths.
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