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Old 03-16-2007, 07:42 AM   #31
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Thanks Doherty. That was beautiful. I am looking forward to Zeichmann's response to it.

This would be damaging to your case Gibson.
How so? My case is based upon the meaning of ὁμολογεω has and what it means when it is constructed with ἐν and used with ἔμπροσθεν, not whether or not the Son of Man referred to in Q/Lk. 12:8 is thought by Luke or the tradents behind Q to be Jesus.

What's your's based on?

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Which commentators are these?
Try I.H. Marshal, J. Nolland, J. A. Fitzmyer, R. Bultmann, F. Hahn, A.J.B. Higgins, H.E. Todt, J. McDermott, G. Haufe, C. Colpe, for starters.

I'll do a "you" and let you look up what they have to say.

JG
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Old 03-16-2007, 07:51 AM   #32
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How so? My case is based upon the meaning of ὁμολογeω constructed with ἐν and used with ἔμπροσθεν, not whether or not the Son of Man referred to in Q/Lk. 12:8 is Jesus.
I see that you have revised your earlier position. You are off the hook.
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What's your's based on?
I have no case. I am just an active commentator.
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Old 03-16-2007, 07:58 AM   #33
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I see that you have revised your earlier position.
I have? Could you please show me how I've done so?

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I have no case.
Truer words..., KTL.

JG
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Old 03-16-2007, 10:02 AM   #34
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Thinking about how to think - metathinking?
Metacognition = you thinking about how you think.

Being capable of altering your own thinking so as to avoid/diminish personal bias requires metacognitive ability.

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How about Psychology?
That is thinking about how people in general think.
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Old 03-16-2007, 01:00 PM   #35
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You mean unconsciously incompetent(lowest at the competency ladder) and unconsciously competent(the highest level)? That often appears in what is called a competency ladder which is studied under Management excellence.
I maintain that meta-cognition is not the term you want to use. Meta, as used in metaphysics (in literary theory - not in Philosophy) refers to any thought system that depends on a foundation, a ground or a first principle.
Meta as used in metadata, is data about data as used in database management systems - this is close to meta as used in metaphysics(Philosophy).
Instead of meta-cognition, I suggest you use the word competence. Keep it simple ans straightforward.
This refers to the consciousness of their competence. The incompetent generally have no way of assessing their competence for this very reason. I used the term because I encountered it in several pysch articles. I assure I did not make this term up, and it seems Ameleq has provided a good summary of what the terms means, as I may have been unclear.

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Thanks Doherty. That was beautiful. I am looking forward to Zeichmann's response to it.
I'm going to wait a few days until I get back to my apartment before replying to it fully and write about these specific verses at a greater length. But here are some remarks for the time being:

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One: Since Matthew (and Luke) understood this to be Jesus, this means that they cannot have conceived of Jesus as a judge at the End-time. This is patently false, since the whole of Christianity, especially once an historical Jesus was developed, envisioned him as the End-time judge upon his coming or return.
This claim of universality of the motif is assumed and not demonstrated, despite the fact that that is the very question here. Doherty has not shown that it is the case in Q, which seems circular, even though it would be silly for anyone to argue that many Christian sects did not believe Jesus was an eschatological judge (but contrast these writings, in no uncertain terms: Thomas, Q1, miracle chains, signs, some of the parable collections). Similarly, it would be silly for someone to deny that many Christian sects interpreted Jesus' death (whether historical or not) as salvific. There is a distinct lack of evidence for both of these beliefs in Q (and other sources above), and again, Doherty is reading into the text. If he can claim this, then why cannot apologists claim that Jesus' passion and Pauline kerygma are assumed behind Q? There is no clear difference to me. The prevalence of a particular belief at a later time is no indication of it at an earlier one, as Doherty's own work sets to show on the issue of historicity.

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The reason I converted to Matthew’s version of the saying was so that I could make a direct link between it and the famous judgment scene in 25:31f, where the Son of Man is portrayed as ‘coming in his glory, will sit in state on his throne, he will separate men into two groups, those on the right are told to enter the kingdom ready for them, those on the left are consigned to eternal fire, etc.’ If this ain’t judging, I don’t know what is. No role is given to God here. Jesus is not a mere advocate. If Matthew clearly portrays Jesus the Son of Man as apocalyptic judge here, he can hardly have the understanding you claim in 10:32, that he is simply an advocate and not a judge.
The equivocation of Matthean christology with Q christology (ESPECIALLY based on a saying derived from redactional activity on Markan material) is unhelpful and not the least bit convincing. Q 14:27 is also interpreted as referring explicitly to the passion in the Markan parallel (8:34). It would be ridiculous to claim that this also represents Q's theology on this basis alone, despite similar logic. Doherty seems to be mistaking redactional activity for a source's intent.

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Three: Can you really think that all that dramatic language and threats about the coming Day of the Son of Man does not envision him as an apocalyptic judge? The results will be immediate. Matthew 24:39f: “So it will be when the Son of Man comes. Then there will be two men in the field; one will be taken, the other left; two women grinding at the mill; one will be taken, the other left.” 24:50-51: “then the master will arrive on a day that the servant does not expect, at a time he does not know, and will cut him in pieces. Thus he will find his place among the hypocrites, where there is wailing and grinding of teeth.”
Doherty has not actually argued that Q 12:39-46 means that the son of man will judge. Though there is clearly a connection between the two figures (the use of erchomai in both pericopes), the standards for the judgment (if we are to assume Doherty is correct) are completely contradictory. This does not seem to be judgment as it is used elsewhere, as in Q 12:8-9 it is based on confession (as it is elsewhere in Q, evident in the idea of repentance), whereas allegiance to the Jesus movement is presumed in Q 12:42-46, and the FAITHLESS are given the reward! One could hardly ask for a more stark contrast to the logic of judgment behind the Deuteronomistic schema. And though an argument by rhetorical question is rather difficult to respond to, I guess I would say the answer is yes, following top Q scholars, though I confess I need to do more research on the matter.

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According to you, I guess God is meant to be coming in tow here, so he can sit on the bench and listen to the Son of Man prosecute all these people. (How would you like to be in the jury pool for that trial?!) Clearly the Son of Man himself is going to be doing the taking and the cutting here. Are Q and the evangelists saying: “You better be ready, because God’s prosecuting attorney is going to arrive when you least expect him!”?
The son of man enigma is one that I doubt will be ever answered conclusively, though I do find this reading plausible for Q (however anachronistically and jokingly Doherty cares to phrase it), though the son of man has taken on a completely different role in the evangelists' work, as is obvious.

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Four: Luke 12:8 and Matthew 10:32 are usually included in Q, even though there is a somewhat similar saying in Mark (8:38). The same understanding of the Son of Man as judge must have been present in Q as it clearly is in Matthew. Matthew, as do all the synoptic evangelists, comes from communities that have Q roots. Are we to think that the Q community itself had no concept of their Son of Man as a judge and Matthew only a little later, using the Q document, turned that understanding upside down? Obviously, he is continuing the previous understanding, that the Son of Man is coming to do the judging as his prime task, and that’s what the first pericope in Q indicates, John’s forecast of the coming one who will baptize with fire and separate the wheat from the chaff. (The only thing I'm "smuggling into Q" is common sense.)
The evangelists have not been completely faithful to their sources, to argue otherwise would be naive. In this same way, Q2 reinterprets aspects of Q1, and same of Q3 and Q2. If continuity in this understanding is so obvious, I hope Doherty will finally lay out evidence for this claim and refute the arguments of Kloppenborg and others who are mistaken. Once more, I could use this logic to assume that the Q people held the passion narrative closely, because Matthew and Luke did, too. Evidence of a belief at a later time is no indication of it earlier.

Again, the identification of the greater one with the son of man is assumed and not demonstrated. I have objected to this several times, especially given the irony of the conversation in ch. 7. Regardless, his role is again NOT that of a judge. Judgment beforehand is clearly presumed, but that is not the coming one's role, as he does not determine who is wheat and who is chaff.

Doherty should take note of the parallels between the Q saying and the Markan one, which also clearly refers to the son of man as a witness, not a judge, though in far more apocalyptic terms, as precedence for a similar role being present in a parallel. (I am unfamiliar with Revelation and Pastoral Epistle scholarship on these verses [2 Tim 2:12, Rev. 3:5], but they seem rather ambiguous) Once more, I confess I need to look into these verses at greater length before commenting more.
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Old 03-16-2007, 02:34 PM   #36
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Earl, how can you possibly ask the following argumentative question with a straight face?

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Are we to think that the Q community itself had no concept of their Son of Man as a judge and Matthew only a little later, using the Q document, turned that understanding upside down?
Your entire case, in dozens of aspects, absolutely depends on earlier communities having no concept of certain things and later communities turning things upside down.

Are we to think that the Q1 and Q2 communities themselves had no concept of a human founder, and Q3, only a little later, using Q2, turned that understanding upside down?

For starters.

Ben.
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Old 03-16-2007, 03:10 PM   #37
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Earl, how can you possibly ask the following argumentative question with a straight face?



Your entire case, in dozens of aspects, absolutely depends on earlier communities having no concept of certain things and later communities turning things upside down.

Are we to think that the Q1 and Q2 communities themselves had no concept of a human founder, and Q3, only a little later, using Q2, turned that understanding upside down?

For starters.

Ben.
Not to mention how often Earl has attempted to make his case for his understanding of such thinks as the meaning of GENOMENON (EK GUNAIKOS) by claiming that the way a phrase or a topos is used in one place (let alone in virtually all places) should not and cannot be seen or used as evidence, let alone determinative evidence, for what they mean in some other place.

Jeffrey
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Old 03-16-2007, 06:21 PM   #38
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Not to mention how often Earl has attempted to make his case for his understanding of such thinks as the meaning of GENOMENON (EK GUNAIKOS) by claiming that the way a phrase or a topos is used in one place (let alone in virtually all places) should not and cannot be seen or used as evidence, let alone determinative evidence, for what they mean in some other place.
Indeed! It seems a little like going after wood with a blowtorch, not noticing that one lives in a straw house.

Ben.
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Old 03-16-2007, 07:23 PM   #39
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You ask JS for evidence that pagan myths are the source of Jesus’ birth stories, and when he gives you a handful, you demand “primary sources”, as though no modern commentator can ever be used or trusted
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Originally Posted by jgibson000
Can you tell me what modern commentator he adduced and that I rejected?
And on this topic it is well known that there is a huge gap between popular claims and primary sources. The disclaimer that is put on the Kersey Graves book is an example .. however the disclaimer can be bypassed by some, or missing in extracts. And thus his material, and that of Doane, gets recycled by modern writers.

Another simple example .. Farrell Till, skeptic writer, has a number of these claims online in an article published in "The Skeptical Review" .. including even krishna being virgin born. Even though it was acknowledged as defacto inoperative the claim keeps a "commentary" life of its own. Supposedly the web-site-guy is hard to contact to make the correction (though somebody pays the bills year after year).

On some topics primary sources are key. And a request for primary sources on pagan birth story claims, including the virgin birth, is simply to be expected and the surprise and concern above looks a bit strained and feigned.

This is without even getting into the topic of syncretism which may account for some of the claims .. in reverse. (Perhaps involved in the infamous Freke & Gandy bookcover, to the degree that it is authentic.)

So primary sources, and their dating and clarity and reliability, is key.

On this toipc a modern commentator sans primary references is pretty much useless, even if one was supplied.

Shalom,
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Old 04-26-2007, 02:00 PM   #40
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Doherty has posted his response, for those interested: http://home.ca.inter.net/~oblio/CritiquesZeich.htm

I've yet to read it all the way through, and I probably won't get around to writing a full response for about a month, given upcoming papers, social events, and graduation. That said, he's definitely out-clevered me with his title.
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