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Old 02-15-2008, 06:27 PM   #751
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Darius the Mede apparently exists to deal with prophecies in Jeremiah and Isaiah which say that the Medes would conquer Babylon.
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Not really, Cyrus's mother was a Mede. Prophecy fulfilled

Mandane, Cyrus’ mother, was the daughter of king Astyages, who was the last emperor of the Median dynastic empire (728-550BCE).
In point of fact, nothing is known for sure about Cyrus II's early years. What you (and your site) are repeating is part of a body of stories called the Cyrus Legend. Britannica:

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echoes in Xenophon, may be called a Cyrus legend since it obviously follows a pattern of folk beliefs about the almost superhuman qualities of the founder of a dynasty. Similar beliefs also exist about the founders of later dynasties throughout the history of Iran. According to the legend, Astyages, the king of the Medes and overlord of the Persians, gave his daughter in marriage to his vassal in Persis, a prince called Cambyses. From this marriage Cyrus was born. Astyages, having had a dream that the baby would grow up to overthrow him, ordered Cyrus slain. His chief adviser, however, instead gave the baby to a shepherd to raise. When he was 10 years old, Cyrus, because of his outstanding qualities, was discovered by Astyages, who, in spite of the dream, was persuaded to allow the boy to live. Cyrus, when he reached manhood in Persis, revolted against his maternal grandfather and overlord. Astyages marched against the rebel, but his army deserted him and surrendered to Cyrus in 550 BC.
The unreliability of the story about Cyrus' mother being Median is likewise confirmed here:

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Some modern scholars think that Herodotus' stories about the dynastic links between Cyrus the Great and the kingdoms he later conquered (Media, Lydia and Babylonia) are propaganda to legitimize his invasion and they lack historical reality. In particular, it would have been to Cyrus' advantage to claim kinship to Media, as that would have made his usurption of the empire more acceptable to the Median people.

This doubt is furthered by that fact that, for Mandana to have been the daughter of Aryenis of Lydia, she would have had to been born after the Battle of the Eclipse in 585 BCE, when Aryenis was given to Astyages as part of a treaty between Media and Lydia. That would mean that Mandana was well below the age of marriage when she was given to Cambyses I. That is not unheard of in royal alliances, so it is possible, but it would also indicate that she was just at the age of puberty when Cyrus was born and that Cyrus himself was a relatively young man when he died.

At this point, there is not enough historical references to confirm either theory.
Not that any of it matters. Even if Cyrus were half-Median, Babylon was still conquered by Persians. Capturing a city or creating an empire is an act of a state; a political power representing a people. But Media no longer existed as a political power having been subjugated by the Persians years before. So in this case, the conquering power is Persia, not Media.

Not that your example makes sense anyhow. The royal house of England (Windors) are actually of German descent; they are, however, British.

Edited to add: arnoldo, are you getting the feeling yet that the skeptics are way ahead of you? That they can respond to your flurry of (unread) citations a lot faster than you thought they would be able to? Maybe that should tell you something. Like, oh, we've heard all this shit before and have already researched it and discovered that it fails?
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Old 02-15-2008, 08:53 PM   #752
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Darius the Mede apparently exists to deal with prophecies in Jeremiah and Isaiah which say that the Medes would conquer Babylon.
Not really, Cyrus's mother was a Mede. Prophecy fulfilled
Doh! So now you're going to champion the matrilineal cause.




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Old 02-15-2008, 09:00 PM   #753
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Regardless archaelogical evidence clearly states that Ugbaru died, thus Spin's claims( (Akk.) Ugbaru = (Akk.) Gubaru = (Greek) Gobryas.) are bogus.
Which part of the linguistics here do you claim is bogus? Do you doubt that Gobryas is a Greek form, while Gubaru is an Akkadian form? Do you doubt that Ugbaru is a variant form of the Akkadian Gubaru? Did you think before opening your mouth? Apparently not. Apparently you didn't read the full post. Apparently you went off half-cocked as usual, just as apparently clueless of what you are talking about.


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Old 02-15-2008, 09:10 PM   #754
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Except that it fails to identify the protagonist, thus demonstrating that nomenclature isn't always reliable. Which, working backwards to your question ("Why do we call it the Median War"), can be answered by:

1. "We don't call it by that name".

2. It doesn't matter if your source -- which does use that term in a minority of cases -- uses that appellation, since nomenclature isn't always reliable anyhow
1. Who cares if you don’t call it the Median Wars? Whether or not you call it like this is wholly irrelevant to the issue of whether the Jews in Babylon called Darius the Persian ‘a Mede’.

2. Wrong. Of course, it does matter whether Herodotus, a near-contemporary of Daniel called the Persians ‘the Medes’ at least in a minority of cases to help decide if Daniel might have done likewise.
The Encyclopedia Iranica:

It is probable that Cyrus had then adopted the titles of the Median rulers. . and patterned his court after that of the Medes.
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Old 02-16-2008, 04:08 AM   #755
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1. Who cares if you don’t call it the Median Wars? Whether or not you call it like this is wholly irrelevant to the issue of whether the Jews in Babylon called Darius the Persian ‘a Mede’.

2. Wrong. Of course, it does matter whether Herodotus, a near-contemporary of Daniel called the Persians ‘the Medes’ at least in a minority of cases to help decide if Daniel might have done likewise.
The Encyclopedia Iranica:

It is probable that Cyrus had then adopted the titles of the Median rulers. . and patterned his court after that of the Medes.
Good point.
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Old 02-16-2008, 04:18 AM   #756
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If it does not follow a chronological order, then you should be able to explain why the author very carefully dates certain sections by regnal years, as follows: third Jehoiakim, the siege of Jerusalem (1:1); second Nebuchadnezzar, the dream of the great image (2:1); first Belshazzar, the vision of the four beasts (7:1); third Belshazzar, the vision of the ram and the he-goat (8:1); first Darius the Mede, the vision concerning the seventy weeks (9:1); third Cyrus, the vision concerning the “king of the north” (10:1). Thus the succession of regnal authority in Babylon is detailed as Nebuchadnezzar, Belshazzar, Darius the Mede, Cyrus. It is stated that Nebuchadnezzar was Belshazzar’s father and that Darius the Mede received the kingdom from Belshazzar (5:2, 31). 6:29 LXX states that Darius died and that Cyrus took “his kingdom.” Further, in third Cyrus, the angel can refer to first Darius as in the past (11:1). There can be no doubt that this is the chronological succession of kings the author accepted.
Daniel carefully mentions certain events because he wishes to date the different dreams. He is obviously addressing someone who does not need to be told the full story in the chronological sequence - because he knows it too well - but in the order most apt to convey the message.

Pointing at alleged mistakes is tantamount to begging the relevant question. And the relevant question to understand Daniel’s order is, Who is the addressee and what is the message?

By the way, my LXX Da 6:29 says:
και Δανιηλ κατευθυνεν εν τη βασιλεια Δαρειου και εν τη
βασιλεια Κυρου του περσου
Which does not translate into what you say.
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Old 02-16-2008, 09:18 AM   #757
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If it does not follow a chronological order, then you should be able to explain why the author very carefully dates certain sections by regnal years, as follows: third Jehoiakim, the siege of Jerusalem (1:1); second Nebuchadnezzar, the dream of the great image (2:1); first Belshazzar, the vision of the four beasts (7:1); third Belshazzar, the vision of the ram and the he-goat (8:1); first Darius the Mede, the vision concerning the seventy weeks (9:1); third Cyrus, the vision concerning the “king of the north” (10:1). Thus the succession of regnal authority in Babylon is detailed as Nebuchadnezzar, Belshazzar, Darius the Mede, Cyrus. It is stated that Nebuchadnezzar was Belshazzar’s father and that Darius the Mede received the kingdom from Belshazzar (5:2, 31). 6:29 LXX states that Darius died and that Cyrus took “his kingdom.” Further, in third Cyrus, the angel can refer to first Darius as in the past (11:1). There can be no doubt that this is the chronological succession of kings the author accepted.
Daniel carefully mentions certain events because he wishes to date the different dreams. He is obviously addressing someone who does not need to be told the full story in the chronological sequence - because he knows it too well - but in the order most apt to convey the message. ...
Ah, I see. It is an ordered account, except for when it is not an ordered account. Why are you supporting any kind of order at all if conveying the message is the most important factor?

However, you still have not dealt with the fact that Daniel dates by means of regnal years — and those regnal years (and the previously mentioned cuneiform tablets) — establish a royal succession that has no room for a Darius the Mede.
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Old 02-16-2008, 12:05 PM   #758
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Ah, I see. It is an ordered account, except for when it is not an ordered account. Why are you supporting any kind of order at all if conveying the message is the most important factor?

However, you still have not dealt with the fact that Daniel dates by means of regnal years — and those regnal years (and the previously mentioned cuneiform tablets) — establish a royal succession that has no room for a Darius the Mede.
A special order, that is, an order other than chronological is simply what other users have suggested in this same thread. Therefore, one may use the argument in support of a second-century but not a sixth-century dating. Double yardstick?

That “Darius the Mede” is the father of Xerxes, whom at least twice the Spartan ambassadors called ‘king of the Medes’ - according to Herodotus. What’s the problem with him in cuneiform tablets?

And you have not yet told me where you got your XXL Da 6:29 from.
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Old 02-16-2008, 12:52 PM   #759
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Not really. The Persians had no court protocols. Realizing their need, they borrowed the Median forms. Opportunistic theft of 'intellectual property' from the group of people you just finished conquering is hardly novel or noteworthy. In fact this opportunistic borrowing (i.e, stealing whatever works) is one of the points of genius of the Achamaenid Persian Empire. Britannica:

The culture that developed under the Achaemenids was in reality the collective societies and cultures of the many subject peoples of the empire. From this mosaic it is sometimes difficult to sort out that which is distinctively Persian or distinctively a development of the Achaemenian period and therefore perhaps an early Iranian contribution to general Middle Eastern society and culture.


When Cyrus II rolled into Babylon, he took the hand of Marduk (the chief Babylonian god) in a ritual practice, signaling his intention to rule not as a Persian king, but as a Babylonian king. The Persians also did not insist on primacy of Persian language; the written languages were Persian, Babylonian, and Elamite, as on the Behistun inscription. ynquirer mistakes the Persians' recognition of simple utility and political expediency for some kind of admiration.
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Old 02-16-2008, 12:56 PM   #760
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Daniel carefully mentions certain events because he wishes to date the different dreams. He is obviously addressing someone who does not need to be told the full story in the chronological sequence - because he knows it too well - but in the order most apt to convey the message.
First you say that Daniel "carefully" mentions certain events, to date the dreams. Then you say that his audience doesn't need the dates, because the story is already known. If the audience can leave off the dates (due to familiarity with the story) then for what reason was Daniel "carefully" mentioning dates? You just said the audience wouldn't find that information necessary.

Moreover, if the person Daniel is addressing "knows the story too well" then regnal dating wouldn't even be invoked at all; it would be left off. The story would be recognizable merely from its own distinctive internal details.

That was a totally unconvincing bit of reasoning on your part.

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Pointing at alleged mistakes is tantamount to begging the relevant question.
On the contrary. The mistakes - verified, not alleged - go to the heart of the claim for a 5th century date.
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