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Old 01-21-2006, 10:51 AM   #61
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Originally Posted by the_cave
...and the answer to that depends on what they understood by "Jesus" and "Messiah"!
Yep, full circle.

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Not among Jews?
Sure but that isn't Paul's audience, is it? The Jews Paul had a problem with wanted the audience to be modified to fit Judaism but Paul was modifying Judaism to fit his audience.

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If Galatians is at all accurate (we probably shouldn't get into a discussion of that), then Paul's mission was approved by the Jerusalem church. Surely they were preaching primarily to Jews who had previously expected an earthly Messiah of one sort or another?
Sure, and they might have included information about the preaching of a living Jesus in their preaching but Paul clearly doesn't and we have no indication that he was criticized for its absence. What does that tell us? I would think it suggests that the preaching of a living Jesus was not necessary to the gospel. OTOH, Paul also tells us that the Pillars were interested in making sure that his efforts obtained a regular cashflow so a jaded individual might wonder if that wasn't the only thing that mattered to them as far as the gentiles were concerned. IOW, "Yeah, you go teach the gentiles but make sure you get the address right when you send back the cash, Paul."

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I'm saying it wouldn't motivate the demand for biographical details.
Yes and that's exactly what we don't have in Paul. We don't really have much in the way of biographical details in Mark, either, but we do have Jesus depicted in a clearly historical context and that, I think, provides ample motivation for interest in biographical details. And what do we find included in subsequent versions of the story? Nativity stories and the appearance of a historical account. The obvious question that I've skipped is: What motivated Mark to write his story? And the answer to that question, I think, might be found in another thread: Mark's view of the disciples. From that discussion, it seems possible to me that Mark was motivated by what he considered to be false teachings that either originated with the Disciples/First Apostles or was attributed to them.

The fun just never stops.
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Old 01-21-2006, 12:27 PM   #62
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Originally Posted by youngalexander
Sorry for taking so long, but it has been plurry hot here and turning the computer on doesn't help. I see that a number of others, including Earl have answered. I would say in the LH as ac defined it. However, I doubt that the author of Hebrews thort in such categories.
Can you name one other saviour god who performed "fleshy" actions in the Lower Heavens?

Quote:
Originally Posted by youngalexander
The reason I came to IIDB was in order to see some debate on Earl's theory. I had never entertained the idea of a MJ before reading TJP and having found it (& Carrier's review) quite impressive, wanted to see some counter opinions. I have certainly got my wish.

As far as I can see TJP and the website articles mount a powerful case for Paul's Christ Jesus being mythical. True, there are 'born of woman', 'brother of the Lord', 'kata sarka', 'Lord's supper' and various other objections as we have been discussing. However, it seems to me that they can all be satisfactorily answered.
OK. This may sound like an impertinent question, but if I asked you: Without referring back to Earl's writings, do you think that you would be able to give a satisfactory answer to a Biblical specialist on why 'born of woman' is not a problem for the mythicist side?

I'm not asking you to do this here, but I just wonder at how confident people who accept what Earl is writing really are in their understanding, and especially in the support for those ideas. As I wrote in another thread, a lot of people who've read Earl's book has come away with the idea that people's in Paul's time had beliefs that we would have found difficult to understand, so that any beliefs we attribute to them must be valid.

Quote:
Originally Posted by youngalexander
Bear in mind that there are no absolutes here, it is all a question of probabilites. Earl has only to demonstrate that his reading of 'kata sarka' is plausible and has a reasonable probability of being correct to nullify it as a theory killer. I think that he has done this.
Same as above. If asked, do you think that you would be able to explain how Earl's reading has a reasonable probability of being correct?

Sorry to probe you on these things! I know I sound like a smart-arse. You've said that you aren't entirely convinced of Earl's Mythical theory, so in my eyes you are more likely to be objective in your answers.
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Old 01-21-2006, 12:49 PM   #63
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Originally Posted by GakuseiDon
Can you name one other saviour god who performed "fleshy" actions in the Lower Heavens?
Michael Jordan.

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OK. This may sound like an impertinent question, but if I asked you: Without referring back to Earl's writings, do you think that you would be able to give a satisfactory answer to a Biblical specialist on why 'born of woman' is not a problem for the mythicist side?
Ok. This may sound like an impertinent question, but if I asked you: Without referring back to the bible, do you think you would be able to give a satisfactory answer to a human physiologist specialist on why "a dead guy coming back to life and flying up into the clouds" is not a problem for whatever side you're on Don?



I guess it all makes perfect sense if you're a "biblical specialist" on the right side...
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Old 01-21-2006, 12:55 PM   #64
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Originally Posted by GDon
Can you name one other saviour god who performed "fleshy" actions in the Lower Heavens?
Michael Jordan.
:notworthy:

Quote:
Originally Posted by LGM
Ok. This may sound like an impertinent question, but if I asked you: Without referring back to the bible, do you think you would be able to give a satisfactory answer to a human physiologist specialist on why "a dead guy coming to back to life and flying up into the clouds" is not a problem for whatever side you're on Don?
No, I definitely wouldn't be able to.
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Old 01-21-2006, 01:51 PM   #65
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Originally Posted by GakuseiDon
No, I definitely wouldn't be able to.
Okay...so far so good...

So which is more likely...that some guy named Saul invented a messainic savior god based on his exegesis of some Hebrew prophecy...

...or that a real guy named Jesus, born of a real virgin woman named Mary, was crucified by the Romans, and then 2 days later, gets up, walks out of his tomb, says hi to some of his homies, and then flys off up into the clouds?

Put aside your fear of this vengeful god for a moment and put on your skeptic hat, (you know...the one you use to evaluate the claims of Joseph Smith, Sun Myung Moon, and Marshall Applewhite)...and tell us...which is more likely?

The "mythicist" position is that the earthly man Jesus introduced in "Mark's" hagiography is simply a "myth"...an allegorical archetype...a new and improved piece of Jewish midrash. The mythicist position is supported by the broad evidence that Paul, the other first century disciples, and historians, tell us NOTHING of CONSEQUENCE about ANY of the biographical details of the mythical guy we suddenly find in Mark's stories.

Being "born of a woman"...isn't even close to being "born of the virgin Mary in Bethlehem and was attended by angels and three Eastern kings..."

No amount of knowledge of ancient Greek, or desperate rationalizing of the silence, is going to change that...and its getting a little late in the day for having copyists and forgers fix the problem...

So please...stop the patronizing pretense that it all makes sense if you're a "biblical specialist", or that the correct translation of Katie Sarka defests the basic mythicist position.

Earl hasn't discovered anything new...he's just putting these pieces of the Jesus puzzle in chronological order on the table and is simply saying..."look". Ane the people who have so much invested in some, or all of the myth, being historical...

...are screaming "heretic"!
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Old 01-21-2006, 03:20 PM   #66
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I understand what you're saying,
With all due respect, I don't think so. Otherwise you would not have posed the questions you did.

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but I think it's likely that people did view these things critically at the time.
What do you mean by "people"? Some "people" view marketing statements more critically than others. But the evidence is incontrovertible. There are mutually exclusive assertions in the Bible. The great mass of Christians simply don't care. Q.E.D. They are operating at a marketing level of images and not concrete analytics.


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But "natural" does have a meaning to consumers. Maybe some of them only care that the word "natural" on their cereal makes them feel good, but surely many of them assume that "natural" has some real-world consequences. I suppose they imagine that there are no man-made chemicals in the cereal, or that the grain was grown organically, or something like that. But I can't believe that there's just nothing going on inside everyone's heads besides "'Natural' sounds good, therefore this cereal is good." Granted, maybe a few, but surely not everyone.
Again, you do not seem to grasp the elemental point. Who cares what varying images are operating in the minds of consumers. It has to appear on the label, and it does not even have to mean the same thing to everyone.



Quote:
They cared so much that eventually elaborate theologies were crafted in order to explain the contradiction, which led to great disputes. If that's not caring, then I don't know what is!
You are confusing the great mass of consumers with the academic types who spend whole lifetimes anguishing over minutiae. Are any of the three geneaologies of Jesus ever read in church?

What sorts of things actually occupy most people's minds in church? Is the mortgage payment late? What am I having for lunch? What color panties is she wearing? Is God going to grant me the Smith account? My shoes are prettier than her shoes. Etc.

zzzzz...Seed of David...mph...zzzz...prophets foretold...snort...everlasting life...zzzz...Did I put bleach in the washer...
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Old 01-21-2006, 08:28 PM   #67
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Originally Posted by Don
Quote:
Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
As I’ve asked before, what did the “heavenly Jerusalem� constitute? What about the “robes and thrones and crowns� awaiting the righteous in heaven in the Ascension (9:9-11) and the “garments� in the Similitudes of Enoch (62)?
Earl, as I've replied before, these are events that occur above the firmament. What about the equivalent of a "heavenly Jerusalem" above the earth in the sublunar realm? There doesn't appear to be any evidence for such an idea. Can you list the activities that were thought to have taken place in the sublunar realm above the earth?
I didn’t say that the heavenly Jerusalem was in the sublunar realm. My point was that material things on earth had their counterparts in the heavens, demonstrating that there were spiritual equivalents to earthly things (whether cities, or trees or “struggling� among evil angels). Some of these things could be located in the sublunar realm, as is shown by the Ascension, where the angel accompanying Isaiah speaks of counterpart activities between the demons in the upper aer or firmament, and similar activities on earth. Clearly, the “sublunar realm� can include things both spiritual and material, since this is the region defined by “corruptibility� and death. This is precisely why the fallen angels were banished there, and why gods to undergo suffering and death must descend below the moon (as Julian has Attis doing).

(Someone quoted Bernard Muller on “Zion� being earthly. I never said it wasn’t. I was speaking of the heavenly Jerusalem, which by definition is not earthly. As usual, Muller takes something out of context, misreads it, and builds up an irrelevant case based on his misconception.)

You ask for evidence of other savior gods undergoing sublunary experiences, and point to myths of gods like Osiris having traditions seemingly placed on earth. The latter is so because that’s where they were originally located, in sacred time or primordial history. Gods like Osiris and Dionysos had ancient traditions and myths established long before Platonism, and this mode of expression was preserved. Mithras slaying the bull, however, in its Hellenistic version, did not, and no one would point to the Greek Mithras as an historical figure or place his activities on earth in history. Christianity arose at a time when Platonic cosmology had taken over myth, which is why the earliest Christian mythology (as in Paul) contains no earthly historical elements. Its source is scripture, as I continually point out, and will continue to do so. As for the Ascension, it presents a clear picture of a descending god, and even if you regard the crucifixion by “the god of that world� as not clearly located in the firmament (although I think it is), the descent itself is not allegorical. If the Son can descend through the layers of heaven, especially interacting with the denizens of the various levels, including the upper aer, then he can undergo things in that region below the moon and above the earth. That’s really all we need. But for a fuller presentation of the case that Platonic views of mythology were current, see Appendix 6 in The Jesus Puzzle. (I was going to reproduce it here, but I find that I don’t have an electronic copy of my JP text at hand. The only surviving one is at the printer, and my original perished in my 2003 computer crash, and I can't seem to locate backup copies.)

I think Don and I have long since presented our differing viewpoints on myth and the sublunar realm, and I see little to be gained by going over the same ground repeatedly. The exclusive focus by the early epistles on scripture more than adequately suggests that history and oral tradition was not the source of their information about Christ, and since there is nothing equivalent to ‘primordial history’ in early Christian mythology, parallels with ancient tales of Osiris are not that relevant. Perhaps we should ask ourselves why myths, supposedly on earth, concerning a god like Osiris can survive in that ‘quasi-historical’ form for millennia, but the entire early record of Christianity outside the Gospels, supposedly composed within years and decades of Jesus’ own life, has nothing of the sort. Instead, Christ is “revealed� out of scripture, Christ “speaks� out of scripture, everything he “does� (as in Hebrews 5:7) is derived from scripture. Even the one supposedly clear historical datum everyone likes to appeal to, Romans 1:3’s “of David’s seed� is stated outright by Paul as scripture based, nothing else, and to demonstrate this, tomorrow I will post my 2001 reply to Jeffrey Gibson on the JesusMysteries board on that very point, when he, like so many others, tried to ‘detach’ 1:3 from the “gospel of God in the prophets� in the preceding verse. If this feature of Christ “kata sarka� is dependent on scripture and not historical tradition, it amply demonstrates that “kata sarka,� however Paul thought of it, has here a mythological significance and derivation. For early Christians like Paul, scripture was the embodiment of the Christ myth, a situation whose development would be inconceivable if Jesus of Nazareth had recently walked the earth and inspired men and women to go out and preach him, heavy with the memory of his historical activities. That they would abandon and ignore those memories and that life in favor of an obscure and esoteric method of presenting their object of worship to the world makes no sense at all.

One thing I would like to point out is that this method we find in the epistles is a consistent one. Those explanations I have been supplying from my website to the dozen or so passages TedM (and others) regularly appeal to fit into a coherent whole. A mythical Christ with features common to other savior god mythology (interpreted in a largely Jewish setting), a source in revelation and scripture, with a grounding in the philosophy and cosmology of the time. There is nothing ad hoc about any of it.

Continuing with those explanations in response to Ted’s claims, let me throw in these today:

Quote:
Originally Posted by TedM
The author of 1 Peter claims to have been the apostle Peter and twice claims to have witnessed Jesus’ sufferings (1:1, 5:1)
From my Sound of Silence feature on 1 Peter:

Quote:
1 Peter 5:1
And now I appeal to the elders of your community, as a fellow-elder and a witness of Christ's sufferings, and also a partaker in the splendor that is to be revealed. [NEB]
If this were Peter writing, or even someone writing in his name who knew of him as Jesus' chief apostle, he would hardly have characterized him(self) simply as a "fellow-elder" and make no mention of having been a follower of Jesus on earth. Of the latter there can be no knowledge on the part of this writer. If the epistle is being written in Peter's name there would have been even less reason for failing to include this information in a situation where he is "appealing" to the reader. Whether the letter was originally pseudonymous, or whether the ascription to Peter (1:1-2) was added later, it would appear that either of these stages was still prior to the dissemination of the Gospel story. Peter would only have been known as a prominent apostle of the spiritual Christ, as he was known to Paul.

J. N. D. Kelly (characteristically), in his First Epistle of Peter (p.198), tries to suggest that this silence on Peter's part is "self-effacement," a playing down of his status so that he can rank himself with the local church leaders. This is clearly special pleading, and hardly convincing, since no one would have considered Peter 'proud' simply for stating his role in Jesus' ministry, especially if the "witness" reference were to be taken as an eyewitness to the sufferings mentioned. Again, the power of authority and status in urging a course of action upon the reader would have been the overriding consideration.

In regard to that "witness," the word used is "martus." Some try to see this as having the meaning of 'eyewitness,' others interpret it as a declaration of faith. I can do no better than to quote the conservative Kelly, in his opinion (op.cit., p.198) on the matter: "The obvious and straightforward interpretation of this might seem to be that he has been an eyewitness of the Lord's passion, and as such is qualified to hold up His patient endurance of suffering as an example. But although many understand the phrase so, we should hesitate to follow them. Not only is the motive alien to the context, but Peter could hardly be described as having been in any strict sense a spectator of the passion. Properly speaking, martus [as does the related verb, martureo] denotes one who testifies rather than an eyewitness, and it is frequently applied in the NT to people who proclaim, and so bear witness to, Jesus."

Kelly goes on to suggest that the underlying meaning goes even further: that 'Peter' is a "martyr" in the sense that he has suffered himself, in a persecutory sense, on account of the testimony to Christ that he gives. This 'martyr' meaning is, of course, the one which the word martus eventually took on in the Christian context. All of this further removes the thought from any sense of eyewitness.

We can also bring the 'witness' of the entire epistle to bear on interpreting this passage. Our survey of the letter shows that Peter never speaks in terms of eyewitness. He fails to refer to Jesus' teachings in key arguments where an appeal to them would be most natural. He has not even an allusion to make about the bodily resurrection or the eyewitness of followers to the risen Christ in flesh. Rather his faith, and even his knowledge of Christ's passion, comes from the scriptures, as 2:22-3 illustrates.
And,

Quote:
Originally Posted by TedM
1 John 1:1 may be saying that Jesus was seen, heard and touched by the author and others
Again from the Sound of Silence on 1 John:

Quote:
But let's take a look at the so-called "Prologue" of this epistle, as quoted above, verses 1:1-4. Despite commentators' best efforts to regard this as some kind of description of Jesus and his ministry, based on the eyewitness of apostles like "John," it is better understood as a poetic account of the beginnings of the sectarian group itself, its revelatory experience of God and the eternal life he now offered. The language is that of revelation, the pronouns are neuter. In verse 2, this eternal life was "with/in the Father" and was revealed. Only the most forced 'reading into' could render this a reference to Jesus of Nazareth and his life on earth; rather, "life" is a spiritual benefit that God has created for believers and which he has now disclosed. In fact, the pointed absence in this key sentence of any reference to the Son or his identification with the process of salvation, makes the one appearance of the Son in this Prologue—at the end of verse 3—look all the more like a tacked-on idea, introduced when the concept of the Son had developed at a later stage of the community's thinking and began to be introduced at different spots into the basic, earlier stratum of the document. Indeed, the entire first section of the epistle (to 2:17) has only a handful of references to the Son, many of which seem incidental or inconsistent with the context, and is otherwise entirely theocentric. The series of metrical lines in 2:12-14, concerned with sin and mastery over Satan, is solely focused on God. The "light" as opposed to the darkness found beyond the sect, is solely identified with God, and so on.
Best wishes,
Earl Doherty
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Old 01-22-2006, 05:47 AM   #68
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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
I didn’t say that the heavenly Jerusalem was in the sublunar realm.
No, I didn't say you did. I asked for objects in the sublunary realm above the earth. Yet the only ones you give me are the ones ABOVE the firmament. This has happened a few times. I don't see why you bring up the heavenly Jerusalem that exists in the perfect sphere above the firmament when I ask you about objects in the non-perfect world below the firmament.

Quote:
Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
My point was that material things on earth had their counterparts in the heavens, demonstrating that there were spiritual equivalents to earthly things (whether cities, or trees or “struggling� among evil angels).
Earl, this kind of comment makes me suspect that you don't understand what you are saying. The counterparts in the heavens are between what is ABOVE the firmament and what is BELOW. There are no counterparts between the air and the earth that I've found, since both exist in the sublunary realm. I would even make a stronger claim: the concept is incoherent in terms of Middle Platonism.

Quote:
Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
Some of these things could be located in the sublunar realm, as is shown by the Ascension, where the angel accompanying Isaiah speaks of counterpart activities between the demons in the upper aer or firmament, and similar activities on earth.
The angel just says that there is jealousy amongst the demons of the sky, just as there is jealousy amongst people on earth. And that is fair enough, in terms of the beliefs of the day. If you want to try to read more into it than that, I'd like to know how far you want to take it. What activities? Please name them (I've asked for this a few times). Fighting with swords? Hanging people on trees? Please give a source to check.

Quote:
Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
Clearly, the “sublunar realm� can include things both spiritual and material, since this is the region defined by “corruptibility� and death. This is precisely why the fallen angels were banished there, and why gods to undergo suffering and death must descend below the moon (as Julian has Attis doing).
No, Julian doesn't do that. He places Attis on earth, or as an allegory for natural forces, just as Plutarch does. We have ruled out that Paul thought of Christ in allegorical terms, so this example doesn't help you I'm afraid.

From here: http://www.earlychristianwritings.co...e_2_mother.htm

Since, therefore, a certain Cause is allowed to have preceded material forms, being itself entirely immaterial, under the "Third Creator" (who 10 is to us father and lord, not of these objects only, but also of the Visible and Fifth Body), so we separate from the former [the Third Creator] Attis as the Cause that descends as far as the region of Matter, and we regard this Attis as the generative Power and the Gallos at one and the same time----him who, as Fable tells, was exposed by the side of the streams of the river Gallos, and there grew up, and afterwards, when he had got tall and handsome, became the favourite of the Mother of the Gods, and she committed to his care all other things, and placed upon his head the star-bespangled cap. Now if the head of Attis be covered by this visible heaven,11 ought we not perchance to interpret the river Gallos as signifying the span of the Milky Way, for at that point, it is said, that the body which is susceptible of passion mixes with the impassive circular orbit of the Fifth Body? As far as this limit truly hath the Mother of the Gods allowed this minion of her's to leap about and dance----namely, he that resembles the sunbeams,12 this intelligible Power, Attis. And when the same is |263 arrived at the extremity of his limits, he is said in the fable to have descended into the Cave,13 and conversed with the nymph, symbolizing the duplicity of Matter, and it is not Matter itself that is here meant, but the ultimate Cause of things incorporeal, which also existed before Matter. Moreover, it is asserted by Heraclitus: "Death unto souls is but a change to liquid."14 This Attis, therefore, the intelligible Power, the holder together of things material below the Moon, having intercourse with the pre-ordained Cause of Matter, holds intercourse therewith, not as a male with a female, but as though flowing into it, since he is the same with it.

Quote:
Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
You ask for evidence of other savior gods undergoing sublunary experiences, and point to myths of gods like Osiris having traditions seemingly placed on earth. The latter is so because that’s where they were originally located, in sacred time or primordial history. Gods like Osiris and Dionysos had ancient traditions and myths established long before Platonism, and this mode of expression was preserved. Mithras slaying the bull, however, in its Hellenistic version, did not, and no one would point to the Greek Mithras as an historical figure or place his activities on earth in history.
Fine. Then where did they place his activities. From what I've found with other gods, it is either on earth or it is allegory (in which case it didn't happen anywhere at all).

I mean, unless you are claiming that people placed Mithras's activities in a fleshy sublunar realm, what is the point of even raising this? Vork did the same thing for Zeus. You did the same thing for Osiris. Yet Plutarch clearly has the man-in-the-street as placing the activities on earth while Plutarch himself regarded them as allegorical. Remember, we both think that Paul did NOT regard Jesus's crucifixion as allegorical.

A simple question: which saviour gods' activities were placed in a sublunary realm above the earth? Mithras? Osiris? Dionysus? Inanna? Attis? Any? If there are none, then why even raise the question?

Quote:
Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
As for the Ascension, it presents a clear picture of a descending god, and even if you regard the crucifixion by “the god of that world� as not clearly located in the firmament (although I think it is), the descent itself is not allegorical. If the Son can descend through the layers of heaven, especially interacting with the denizens of the various levels, including the upper aer, then he can undergo things in that region below the moon and above the earth.
Appealing to a manuscript in which the final redacted form has Christ crucified on earth doesn't seem to be a strong case to me. AoI also talks about others who were killed under the instructions of demons. Justin Martyr refers to Socrates being framed by demons, as well as the Christians of his day being slurred through the machinations of demons. AoI is consistent with those ideas.

Quote:
Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
I think Don and I have long since presented our differing viewpoints on myth and the sublunar realm, and I see little to be gained by going over the same ground repeatedly.
For what it is worth, I feel I have rebutted your ideas on this subject as you are currently presenting them (and I stress that I agree that it shouldn't be worth very much, since I am very much an amateur in this field -- but that is how I feel). I'm not really trying to declare victory here, just that we are locked into our respective positions, so I can't see any further advance via debate being possible.

At the least, I hope I have put some focus on the subject on the sublunary realm. It would be nice if someone sympathetic to your ideas actually started to look into the whole question of the sublunary realm, since I fear that people reading your book are coming away with an incorrect idea on the topic. But I've been promising myself to move onto other projects (including completing a review of "The God who wasn't there" movie by Brian Flemming), so I will be bowing out of any further discussion on this, at least for the immediate future (though I recall stating something similar not so long ago!)

Earl, I've really appreciated your responses, and have enjoyed these debates immensely. Thanks very much for your time.
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Old 01-22-2006, 10:44 AM   #69
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The following is what I wrote on May 17, 2001 on the JesusMysteries list during an extended discussion of Romans 1:1-4. I have not changed a word of it. At that time, Gibson did not reply to this post. If he makes a reply today, I will be ignoring it, as I indicated in my last posting on the “Doherty, Gibson…� thread concerning his behavior in regard to Richard Carrier. However, I invite anyone else to comment on the content below.

Quote:
At 09:08 PM 5/15/01 -0000, Jeffrey wrote:
>If I might add a note or two.

I want to thank Jeffrey for injecting a note of calm and neutrally rational argument into the discussion on Romans 1. Which is not to say that I won't try to demonstrate that his conclusions are unjustified. I am going to spend some time and space on this, as I consider it very important to the mythicist position that this passage not be simply assumed to require the traditional interpretation, or that it not be overlooked that alternate meanings are fully possible. I hope that those who are genuinely interested in this question will take the time to read and consider the arguments I am putting forward, which are much fuller and with a different approach than I have taken in the past.

First let me say this. There are no magical properties to any of the Greek words which would make them rule out my contention. Jeffrey's argument would work equally well, or poorly, or neutrally, in English as in Greek.

So I am going to address things in English first, to try to convey what I see this passage as saying. (This posting does NOT address the meaning of *kata sarka*.)

First, let's look at a couple of aspects of how Jeffrey has laid out his argument.

>First, in Rom. 1-4 Paul is intent to
>say something about the Gospel of God.

Good start. I fully agree.

>The following two things that
>he says, i.e., (a) that the Gospel was promised before hand through
>his prophets in the holy scriptures and (b) that the Gospel concerns
>God's son, Jesus) are, as the use of PERI indicates, NOT related to
>each other, but are each separte and independent statements which help
>to define the Gospel of God.

Let's lay those verses out this way, using symbols (X), (a), and (b). My (a) and (b) correspond to Jeffrey's (a) and (b), and I'll shorten/paraphrase much in the same way he does:

[Paul] called / set apart for (X) the gospel of God,
(a) which (gospel) God pre-announced/promised in scripture,
(b) (the gospel) concerning/about [PERI] his Son, (who was...)

In English, as in Greek (I maintain), there is nothing to preclude the thought that (b) enlarges on (a) to provide a definition of (X), or, as Jeffrey puts it, to "say something about the gospel of God." I know of no property in the preposition PERI which allows Jeffrey to say that it "indicates" that (a) and (b) are separate and independent statements, if this means that they bear no relationship to, or connection between, one another. And it would certainly be peculiar to say that PERI does this, considering that the word is imbedded in the (b) phrase, where it would be difficult to exercise such an 'indication' over the preceding parts of the sentence.

To put it another way, there is nothing in the way this sentence is structured, nothing implied in the use of the word PERI, which would preclude (a) and (b) from being complimentary ideas. To put it technically, they can be in apposition. I will quote from the Random House Webster's College Dictionary:

Apposition: A grammatical relation between expressions, usually consecutive, that have the same referent and the same relation to other elements in the sentence, as in 'Washington, our first President, was born in Virginia.'

Thus, (a) 'which gospel was pre-announced in scripture' can be enlarged on by and in apposition to (b) 'the gospel concerning his Son'. (a) and (b) join together to provide the full definition of (X) 'the gospel of God.' I cannot see how PERI or any other grammatical consideration in this sentence, in English or Greek, precludes a possible relationship of this sort between (a) and (b).

Let's illustrate this by an analogous construction:

I am going to write (X) my screenplay,
(a) on the story found in Moby Dick,
(b) about ['PERI'] the whale.

In such a sentence, would we logically or naturally take (b) as having nothing to do with (a), or that it was impossible that they could complement one another to collectively define (X), the screenplay? Would we regard the word "about" as having anything to say on such a matter? In this example, (b) enlarges on (a). In fact, it tells us something *about* (a), that the story of Moby Dick concerns a whale. And together, those two ideas will define the nature of the speaker's screenplay. Just as in Romans 1, the gospel pre-announced in scripture is described as the gospel about the Son, and together those two elements define God's gospel. The natural sense is that they *do* complement one another, the second enlarges on the first, and they are not "separate and independent."

Jeffrey goes on to say:

>The first is almost a parenthetical
>remark that has the function of declaring that the Gospel of God which
>Paul preaches is in complete continuity with God's earlier revelation
>to Israel.

I don't see a problem there, except that Jeffrey's word "parenthetical" seems almost intended to downplay the importance of the (a) phrase, as though this somehow helps preclude my stated connection with (b), a strategy I can't endorse. (I note that the KJV actually places brackets around verse 2, to render it parenthetical, but of course there are no such indications in the Greek.)

>The second defines what the Gospel is to be understood in
>terms of, namely Jesus the Christ.

Now, I'm not sure what Jeffrey is implying here, but if he is implying what I think he is, he's on dangerous ground. I think he has in mind the equation "Jesus the Christ = Jesus of Nazareth." He is thus stating that Paul is intending to describe the gospel of God in terms of certain data about the human man of the Gospels (phrase b). But that is the very issue under debate here: is Paul referring independently to a known historical man or is he referring to data about a figure he has derived solely from scripture? If Jeffrey is making the implication I think he is, he is begging the question.

Because, of course, Paul in this passage does not clearly or separately refer to the historical figure. (To declare, I repeat, that he does so in verse 3 is to beg the question under debate.) Nor can it be demonstrated with any surety that he does anywhere else. So Jeffrey's implied assumption has not been demonstrated and cannot be brought into the argument over what this Romans 1 passage might mean.

>Indeed, PERI not only
>functions to relate the clause which it begins to EUANGELLION
>QEOU;

I agree that this is possible, though there are additional options as well. Here we are positioning PERI *in front of* certain words it controls, not *after* certain words it allegedly controls. And I agree that the clause it introduces (made up of two items, the *kata sarka* one, and the *kata pneuma* one) relates those ideas to EUANGELION THEOU. But that doesn't affect--or answer--the basic question: is that gospel, and thus the stated elements that make it up, as introduced by PERI, one that can be seen as derived entirely from scripture? The grammatical structure and the words do not rule this out.

>it signals that there is a beginning of a new, and not a
>dependent thought.

This seems a bit woolly to me. In what way is it new? Jeffrey has just stated that the two elements following "concerning the Son" relate back to EUANGELION. In what way does this thought, or this grammatical structure, automatically make it impossible for it to follow on the "gospel pre-announced in scripture", which is a description/definition of that EUANGELION, such that verse 3 serves to define that EUANGELION in terms of what is found in scripture? How does the word PERI serve grammatically, or in its meaning, to preclude this? I suggest that it does not and cannot. I certainly don't find anything in my lexicons indicating such sweeping powers for this preposition.

This is a doubly important question in view of the fact that the second item introduced by the PERI, the *kata pneuma* statement, would seem not to be anything OTHER than something derived from scripture. It's hardly an historical event, or something known from oral tradition, and it bears a telling resemblance to the well-known (now and at that time) Psalm 2:7-8. So on the contrary, where the *kata pneuma* item is concerned, we have every reason NOT to regard this thought as something "new" or "independent", but as directly reflecting back on the composite definition of God's gospel, and thus this consideration alone would contradict Jeffrey's contention. We have to conclude that in fact it IS dependent on the idea of the gospel of the Son found in scripture.

And if we can make that conclusion about the *kata pneuma* item, what kind of probability does that cast back on the *kata sarka* item? There is nothing grammatically, or structurally, which would lead us to think that Paul talks about a gospel of the Son in scripture, steps out of that thought into the historical field, and then back into it to talk about an obvious event in heaven, known to him probably from Psalm 2.

Furthermore, even that first, *kata sarka*, item can be found in scripture, with predictions that the Messiah of Israel would be descended from David occurring in many places in the Jewish writings. This can only reinforce the feasibility and even likelihood that the *kata sarka* item is also from scripture. All of it fits together very neatly, and PERI, as far as I can see, hardly has the means to pull it apart.

Just to finish off on Jeffrey's comments before going on to make other observations and analogies:

>In other words, as Sanday and Hedlam,
>Zahn, Cranfield, Dunn, Kaesemann, Bryne, Moo, and the editors of UBS
>and the translators of the RV, the RSV, the NEB, and the JB have
>noted, what we have in vs 3-4 is not to be taken as a continuation of
>the relative clause in v. 2, but as an attribute of EUANGELLION.

I entirely agree with the final phrase. The *kata sarka* and *kata pneuma* elements ARE attributes of EUANGELION, but it has not been demonstrated that they cannot be applied as well to the relative clause of verse 2 which defines that EUANGELION and continue on from it. In fact, the indicators are all there that they are a continuation. The link between the EUANGELION of verse 1, and its descriptive qualifier in verse 2, creates a natural connection between the *kata* items and that verse 2 relative clause.

Thus Jeffrey's impressive appeals to many scholars and translations can be partly accommodated. What cannot be accommodated, of course, is that an attribution to EUANGELION rules out any connection to verse 2. That is a distinct question of its own and has not been demonstrated.

Let's try another, fuller analogy. This isn't perfect in every respect, notably because I couldn't work in the 'pre-announced' idea, but it should serve:

I, John Doe, have come here on a special speaking engagement to give you a lecture about a Son spoken of by several writers in Readers Digest, who came from a humble home, and who found a way after death to travel to the fourth dimension where he was made a king over the angels and spirits.

A number of observations about this analogy:
1. Readers Digest contains articles of fact and articles of fiction, so we don't know from this statement which one it is.
2. Leaving aside for the moment the actual content of the phrases, as the sentence reads, everything after "who came from..." is theoretically ambiguous, in that it could be (a) information the lecturer has entirely derived from Readers Digest (which might then be fictional or otherwise), or (b) information which was independently known, but Readers Digest happens to have recorded some or all of it.

Relating this analogy to my previous remarks:
1. The second "who" item is obviously a fictional one. It could only have come from Readers Digest. (If it came from some other source, the lecturer would hardly have implied that Readers Digest was the only source.) By the nature of its content, it has to be fictional. Introducing that necessary element into the analogy, one only has to read it through with that in mind to realize that the first item is, from logic, sentence structure, and natural flow of thought, also a reference to something derived from Readers Digest. There is still the theoretical possibility that the Readers Digest article is speaking of an actual man who was from a humble home, and some fictional/fantasy event has been attached to him, but in practice, this would be a very awkward chain of thought, and not the most natural way we would read the sentence.

As I say, in my analogy, the most natural way to read the thought is that the lecturer is talking about information he has read in Readers Digest. Grammatically, it is not precluded. In fact, the grammar does support such a reading. (Note that I do not say, that the grammer will support ONLY such a reading. Others are theoretically possible.)

I maintain, and nothing Jeffrey has said convinces me otherwise, whatever his competence in Greek (and I am sure it is considerable), that the same principle within my analogy can be applied to the Romans 1 passage. The Greek grammar WILL support such a reading, though it could theoretically allow for a different one, more along the lines he is advocating. Again, in my statements about my reading of Romans 1, I have never claimed that the grammer has to support my reading exclusively. But it cannot be ruled out, and I suggest that it is the more natural reading, when one doesn't bring preconception to the passage.

To that extent, Jeffrey is not correct in saying that there is "no grammatical support for (my) thesis."

But there is another way of reasoning through this passage.
1. If the "gospel of God" is about his Son, it follows that what Paul says about the Son is a part of that gospel.
2. The gospel of God has been announced beforehand (the relative clause of verse 2 modifying the "gospel of God" in verse 1) in the holy scriptures. If we simply judge by the bare words, Paul is saying that the content of the gospel of God is found in scripture, nothing more.
3. As established in 1. above, what Paul says about the Son is part of the content of God's gospel. If that gospel is stated as found in scripture (and Paul doesn't put any qualifier on it, that only "part" of it was pre-announced there), then logically, whatever Paul says about that gospel's content must also be found in scripture.

In short (virtually a syllogism):
1. The gospel of God = what has been pre-announced in scripture.
2. Paul's statements *kata sarka* and *kata pneuma* = part of the gospel of God.
3. Therefore, Paul's statements *kata sarka* and *kata pneuma* = what has been pre-announced in scripture.

That is, A = B / C = A / Therefore, C = B.

(Note, by the way, that I use the translation of the NEB, *announced* beforehand, rather than *promised* beforehand. Both are legitimate, and any distinction doesn't really matter, but my point is clearer I think when using the announced idea.)

There is another logical conclusion to be drawn.

The gospel of God is the gospel Paul preaches, what he has been called to do. The gospel of God was pre-announced in scripture. Therefore, that pre-announcement in scripture was a pre-announcement of the gospel preached by Paul.

That gives us two events. Two poles of the antithesis. The gospel in scripture pointed to / announced ahead of time the gospel Paul preaches. WHATEVER THE CONTENT OF THAT GOSPEL, Paul is saying it looked ahead to himself, to the doctrines about the Christ he preaches. SCRIPTURE PRE-ANNOUNCED PAUL'S GOSPEL.

What's wrong with that picture? Scripture pre-announces Paul, rather than Jesus? If the content of Paul's preaching gospel is data about Jesus, then the content of God's gospel in scripture ought to have been seen as pre-announcing *Jesus*, his features and the events of his life. Instead, Paul skips over him entirely and makes it point to himself. A monumental ego? An irreverent dismissal of Jesus' own ministry and teaching?

I suggest that only one interpretation makes any sense. That there was nothing between the pre-announced gospel of God in scripture, and Paul's extraction of it from scripture. No Jesus of Nazareth, no life, death, and resurrection in actual history. (That same intermediate void crops up in other places in Paul, as in his picture of the change of the ages.) Instead, Christ is a spiritual entity, whose acts were not part of earth or history, and Paul has gained his knowledge about that entity and those acts from the gospel of God he found in the writings. This in turn, fits with his declaration in 1 Corinthians 15:3-4 (when we allow Galatians 1:11-12 to govern the idea of "receiving" there), that he got his doctrine of Christ's death, burial and rising from scripture. *Kata tas graphas.* (And I don't think I need to repeat my observations on that phrase, and its underlying meaning, made in my final communication with Ed yesterday.)

Finally, some comments on Jeffrey's references to commentators and translations. I have very few of the ones he lists to hand, but of those I do:

Sanday (in International Critical Commentary, Epistle to the Romans, p.6-7) discusses verses 2 to 4 without bringing up any question of whether verse 3 is a continuation of verse 2, nor does he mention the word PERI.

I only have certain pages of the Cranfield (1975), and unfortunately am missing his discussion of verse 2. However, in discussing the PERI phrase on p.58, there is no concern with eliminating the dependence of verse 3 on verse 2. Without the previous material, of course, this is inconclusive.

C. K. Barrett (not mentioned by Jeffrey) also discusses verse 3 and the "about his Son" on p.20 of his Epistle to the Romans. There is no addressing of the features Jeffrey brings up.

Now let's look at some of the translations Jeffrey points to. Let's start with the NEB, laying it out as I've been doing above:

l. From Paul, servant of Christ Jesus, apostle by God's call, set apart for the service of the Gospel. [of God; the NEB drops the Greek THEOU here]
2. This gospel God announced beforehand in sacred scriptures through his prophets.
3. It is about his Son: on the...

There is nothing about this translation which bars reading verse 3 as a continuation of verse 2. In fact, by repeating the word "gospel" at the beginning of verse 2 and carrying the reference to God along with it, this translation conveys precisely that. The "It" of verse 3 most naturally (in the sense in which anyone would read it) refers back to verse 2's "gospel". It could also refer back to the "Gospel" of verse 1, but that one is more distant, and since both "gospels" are fully equated, the point is moot. The clauses introduced by "It is about his Son" do nothing less than describe the "gospel God announced beforehand" in scripture. Thus the NEB does not bear out Jeffrey's contentions.

Here is the RSV, leaning more toward Jeffrey's line of thinking:
1. Paul, a servant of Jesus Christ, called to be an apostle, set apart for the gospel of God,
2. which he promised beforehand through his prophets in the holy scriptures,
3. the gospel concerning his Son, who was...

Even here there is no automatic preclusion, in normal reading, of the thought of verse 3 following on verse 2 as a continuation of it. The fact that the term "gospel" is repeated at the beginning of verse 3 does not have to be seen as the translator's attempt to 'bypass' any connection with verse 2 and go back exclusively to verse 1, though it could. I question, however, the burning necessity any translator would feel to have to avoid such a connection. And since the "gospel" and the "which" are naturally linked in the progression of thought, that progression would carry over into verse 3 anyway, making the avoidance of some kind of mental link with verse 2 an impossible task. I suggest that the 'necessity', and the analysis of such relationships, only arises in those who are concerned with establishing certain perceived meanings within this passage. More than likely, the RSV repeats "the gospel" at the beginning of verse 3 in order not to lose the grammatical sense of the ongoing sentence. Just as the NEB did, though it did it differently, it moved words around to accommodate an English reader.

But let's compare another translation Jeffrey doesn't mention, the NIV:
1. Paul, a servant of Christ Jesus, called to be an apostle and set apart for the gospel of God--
2. the gospel he promised beforehand through his prophets in the Holy Scriptures
3. regarding his Son, who...

Now here we have a clear rendering of these verses in a manner opposite to Jeffrey's contention and in conformity to mine. With the repetition of "gospel" at the beginning of verse 2, verse 3 in this translation can only be read as a direct run-on from verse 2, "the gospel he promised...regarding his Son," which would make the *kata* phrases following the "regarding his Son" as a direct description of the "gospel in scripture".

Or perhaps more than that. It would be interesting at this point to compare the NIV with the Greek text:
1. ...eis euangelion theou (for the gospel of God)
2. ho proepengeilato (which he promised beforehand) dia ton prophetwn autou (through his prophets) en graphais hagiais (in holy writings)
3. peri tou huiou autou (concerning his Son)...

There are three ways to regard the 'antecedent' of the PERI phrase. (1)All the way back to the EUANGELION of verse 1; (2) to the thought of the "gospel pre-announced in scripture" of verse 2, or (3) specifically to the word "graphais", writings, which comes immediately before the PERI, with no intervening punctuation. It would seem that as the NIV renders it, the third option is in mind. It is the "holy writings/scriptures" that contain the "about/concerning" material, which would certainly make natural and grammatical sense, especially as Paul has separated out the word "writings" from his reference to the prophets, and has not attached an article to "holy writings".

What Jeffrey would need to supply is some grammatical principle that would unmistakeably rule out any assignment of the PERI phrase to options two and three, and direct it exclusively to option one. Then he would have to demonstrate that the natural link created between verses 1 and 2, identifying the gospel of God with the one pre-announced in scripture (not just a part of it), could not possibly create a connecting channel into verse 2 which would link verse 3 with it anyway. Along the lines of my A = B, C = A, therefore C = B argument outlined above.

I suggest that Jeffrey has not sufficiently substantiated the position he has put forward.

Translations, of course, represent the mind of the translator, and not necessarily reflect accurately the original meaning intended by the Greek writer. But I can see no consistent trend in the half-dozen translations I have surveyed to convey the meaning Jeffrey suggests. Whether in fact, they, he or I have correctly divined Paul's intended thought cannot be said. That is the point. I can't demonstrate that my meaning is the only possible one to be taken from the passage, but I have demonstrated, I think, that there is no impediment to it, that there is grammatical support, in that the grammer does not exclude it. And I think that some of the reasoning along the way has made a good case for my reading.

Again, my bottom line point is that my reading cannot be ruled out, and it even has some things going for it. Therefore Romans 1:1-4 in the sense we are discussing it here cannot be used to disprove the mythicist position. (The possible meaning of *kata sarka* is, of course, a separate issue and needs separate argument, which I have exhaustively given it on this list, to arrive at essentially the same bottom line position: there are other ways to regard the thought behind Paul's reference to the Son *kata sarka* which cannot be ruled out and which can accommodate the mythicist position.)

Best wishes,

Earl Doherty
The Jesus Puzzle website: <http://www.jesuspuzzle.com>
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Old 01-22-2006, 11:16 AM   #70
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Quote:
"Death unto souls is but a change to liquid
I assume Greeks et al had boiled water and seen a change from one element to another, and also seen rain come from clouds so had seen air change to water - a transformation of elements.

The above is another transformation - life - (souls, breath, air, rauch) to liquid - water.

Zip forward to the alchemists - continually attempting to find the philosophers stone, to transform base metal to gold - but I understand alchemy is a very ancient game.

The central ceremony of the xian church - the eucharist - has wine transforming to blood and bread to flesh.

It's all alchemy and magic! There is another alchemy - the dead to life! (known as the resurrection!)

What is this pretence that the neo platonists and writers of the new testament were rational and had ordered everything logically into separate spheres and elements?

There is some logic in it, but there are serious problems - like believing because water can transform into air by adding fire, (by boiling water) death can transform into life by the power of the Holy Spirit!
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