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Old 11-14-2005, 02:25 PM   #221
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Originally Posted by FFT
My interpretation of the serpent in Genesis is quite simple: it is an explanation as to why this animal, for all intents and purposes a reptile, has no legs. It is quite similar, in this manner, to every other mythology. For instance, the story of Arachne in Greek mythology.
Considering that we primates seem to have an instinctive fear of snakes, it's no wonder that this animal would be used as the bad guy in an old myth. I've read that chimps are fearful of even toy snakes, that look real enough; even chimps raised in captivity, who have no experience with real snakes. I imagine that our small, tree dwelling ancestors must have had a problem with predatorial tree snakes in ages past.

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Old 11-14-2005, 02:39 PM   #222
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Your question seems to be, “Does an omniscient god make free will irrelevant?� The answer is that an omniscient god has nothing to do with free will.
You're just as wrong as always, but at least you're consistent. An omniscient God refutes human free will by logically eliminating all other logically available alternatives from any possibility of being selected. Without an omniscient God, that restriction is not in effect, and free will appears to be in effect.

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The only thing relevant to free will is whether you have a deterministic or non-deterministic system.
You have a deterministic system if you assume an omniscient God. All things are determined to turn out the way God knows it will.

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So the answer to your question, "Does it matter whether or not human beings have free will (of any variety) if god is omniscient?" depends on <braaaaap>
Short version: Free will is irrelevant. I had to throw out the rest of your word salad.

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In the context of the Bible, God created a deterministic system in which all man's choices are derived from, and caused by, his desires.
Nope. You're still stuck on this "desires" schtick. Desires are irrelevant. The actions are deterministic because God knows how everything will turn out, and God can't be wrong - regardless of what men desire or not.

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Having created such a system, God then <braaaap>
Your premise is wrong, so your conclusion is flushed.

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Old 11-14-2005, 02:44 PM   #223
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Originally Posted by Ubercat
Considering that we primates seem to have an instinctive fear of snakes, it's no wonder that this animal would be used as the bad guy in an old myth. I've read that chimps are fearful of even toy snakes, that look real enough; even chimps raised in captivity, who have no experience with real snakes. I imagine that our small, tree dwelling ancestors must have had a problem with predatorial tree snakes in ages past.
I'm not sure why this is, but I've never been afraid of snakes. Not overly enthusiastic about them, but never repulsed by them either, I can take 'em or leave 'em. I don't know why that's always been the case; probably because I made a pact with Satan, or something else.

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Old 11-14-2005, 03:09 PM   #224
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Surely you jest. Let’s see. People build a football stadium and only let those people enter who buy a ticket. You then accuse the owners of torturing those people who do not buy a ticket because the owners do not let them watch the game. How do you come up with this logic??

JPD
Different thing entirely. Those who do not have a ticket just don't get into the game. They don't suffer beyond missing the game. They aren't punished - beyond missing the game - for missing the game.
You are quibbling over nothing. The point here is that one must obtain a “ticket� (forgiveness for sin) in order to get into heaven. Otherwise, one resides outside (in hell). God is not responsible for people who refuse to take a ticket when offered (even when the ticket is essentially free).
WTF? Bible god doesn't offer a ticket to the unsaved. It's his decision that they not be saved in the first place. What's the point of offering a ticket to someone if you're not going to allow them to take it? Thats akin to me tiptoeing up to you while you're sleeping, and whispering "Hey want a ticket to the big game?" Hmmm... he didn't answer. Guess he's not interested. His loss. If I'm too much of a fucktard to WAKE you up before making the offer, how dare I blame it on you?

Oh and Rhutchin, please don't try to wiggle your way out of this. You've already proudly proclaimed your Calvinism in other threads.

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Old 11-14-2005, 03:35 PM   #225
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Originally Posted by lynx
I see it this way - god made a movie, starring us. (creation)

This blockbuster (in sense-surround!) has great rewatchability as there are billions upon billions of scenes in a huge number of locations. This god can replay the movie continuously, rewind or fast forward and even zoom in. (omniscience)

We have as much free will here as do Frodo and Sam.
Or the poor orcs. Don't forget that sad lot.

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Old 11-14-2005, 04:40 PM   #226
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rhutchin
Surely you jest. Let’s see. People build a football stadium and only let those people enter who buy a ticket. You then accuse the owners of torturing those people who do not buy a ticket because the owners do not let them watch the game. How do you come up with this logic??

JPD
Different thing entirely. Those who do not have a ticket just don't get into the game. They don't suffer beyond missing the game. They aren't punished - beyond missing the game - for missing the game.

rhutchin
You are quibbling over nothing. The point here is that one must obtain a “ticket� (forgiveness for sin) in order to get into heaven. Otherwise, one resides outside (in hell). God is not responsible for people who refuse to take a ticket when offered (even when the ticket is essentially free).

ubercat
…Bible god doesn't offer a ticket to the unsaved. It's his decision that they not be saved in the first place. What's the point of offering a ticket to someone if you're not going to allow them to take it? Thats akin to me tiptoeing up to you while you're sleeping, and whispering "Hey want a ticket to the big game?" Hmmm... he didn't answer. Guess he's not interested. His loss. If I'm too much of a fucktard to WAKE you up before making the offer, how dare I blame it on you?

Oh and Rhutchin, please don't try to wiggle your way out of this. You've already proudly proclaimed your Calvinism in other threads.
The ticket is offered and the terms understood. All one has to do is read about it in the Bible (I suspect even you know those terms). God does not prevent you from accepting the terms and conditions required to get into heaven. Do you really think that you are asleep or have you been told that the Bible is a fairy tale and you have bought into that?
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Old 11-14-2005, 04:51 PM   #227
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Originally Posted by John A. Broussard
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Originally Posted by rhutchin
Your question seems to be, “Does an omniscient god make free will irrelevant?� The answer is that an omniscient god has nothing to do with free will. The only thing relevant to free will is whether you have a deterministic or non-deterministic system.

So the answer to your question, "Does it matter whether or not human beings have free will (of any variety) if god is omniscient?" depends on whether it matters to you that you have a deterministic or non-deterministic system. If you want a deterministic system, then it only matters that people have the “free will� to do as they desire. If you want a non- deterministic system, then it only matters that people have the “free will� to do as they desire or do not desire. Either case, it is immaterial whether a god is omniscient because the system is deterministic or non-deterministic first and then God knows what the system produces. Once you specify whether the system is deterministic or not, then you have resolved your free will issue and then a god can know what the system produces.

In the context of the Bible, God created a deterministic system in which all man's choices are derived from, and caused by, his desires. Having created such a system, God then knows how the system will play out becuase He is omniscient and knows the desires of men and that which they will choose in a given situation.

It's a hard struggle, but we're getting there.

Yes, yes, yes!!!! As you say above, "Your question seems to be, 'Does an omniscient god make free will irrelevant?'

I've said that over and over again. I'll say it again. An omniscient god makes free will irrelevant. Is that part clear, concise and understandable?

If not, let me know and I'll explain some more.

Now, the next point. You want to talk about "a deterministic system."

I'm not at all sure what you mean by this. All I'm specifying is that an omniscient god knows everything that we've done, are doing, and will do. If you want to call that a deterministic system. Fine. If you don't want to call it a deterministic system, that's fine too.

Do you disagree with the fact that god, being omniscient, knows everyting. If you disagree, I'll explain some more.

You say then that your omniscient god, "knows the desires of men and that which they will choose in a given situation."

I agree.

Does it then make one iota of difference whether or not men have free will?

If you feel it does, please explain how someone with free will will behave differently, given an omniscient god, then someone without free will.

I appreciate your reading of my posts. Please don't hesitate to ask for further clarification.

In the meantime, I look forward to your response.

Thank you.
A deterministic system is one in which the choices a person makes are determined by some factor. I think you and I agree that a person's desires determine the choices they make. If we define "free will" as the ability of a person to choose that which he desires, then we have a deterministic system with free will. Whether a god is omniscient does not change the outcome of the deterministic system -- the choices one makes are determined by one's desires -- and it does not matter who knows it or when they know it.
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Old 11-14-2005, 05:10 PM   #228
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This is not a clear-cut identification of Satan as the serpent in the garden
Good job Pharoah. I never said it was "clear cut". Rather, the Revelation verse was but one piece of several. Additionally, the fact no other spiritual entity is called "the Serpent" in the bible but Satan, then it allows one to infer if anyone was using the Serpent or appeared as a Serpent in Genesis, it was Satan.

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So basically there is nowhere in the Bible that Satan is identified as the serpent in the garden.
I have already mentioned it is not "explicitly" spelled out. However, it does not have to be "explicitly" mentioned in order for it to be true or concluded.

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It's funny that you should mention the census. Exactly who incited David to take it? God or Satan? It depends on which version you choose to accept. Since Satan is portrayed in Job as acting on the orders of God I guess it doesn't really matter. Either way it was God's decision to have David take the census.
Despite the seemingly discrepancy the fact remains there exists a verse in the bible which identifies "Satan" and he is the one tempting David to do wrong.

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However, you seem to have a remarkably difficult time accepting the idea that before the Fall a snake could talk on its own, even though it could walk and was craftier than any beast. Why is that?
Biblically speaking there does not exist any precedent for snakes to talk on their own volition. Being "crafty" does not mean it can "talk". Your equivocation of the two is in error. Since I cannot find any biblical precedent for any animal to talk on their own volition, nor do they do it in reality (at least not in a language we can understand).
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Old 11-14-2005, 05:48 PM   #229
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The more typical use of the word in the Bible neither requires nor suggests nor implies that the hostility and hatred must be between two persons but, in addition to that mistaken assumption, you are clearly attempting to shift the burden from yourself where it belongs.
Nice try Amaleq. You could perhaps benefit from re-reading my post. I never used the word "must".

The fact is I said there does not exist a biblical precedent for the word to be used in any other way other than to characterize a relationship between persons. Given the persistent use of how the word is used in the bible leads to the existence of a "habit". Are you familiar with "habit" evidence? Well if not visit a local law school library or bookstore, chekc out a book on evidence, and research the "relevance" and "persuasiveness" of habit evidence, aka "consistency" evidence.

Additionally, I have not shifted the burden. This demonstrates to me you either misunderstand my argument, which I have already illuminated, and this lead to your ridiculous idea I have shifted the burden. Nice try. I have not asked the opposing side to "prove" a claim they have not made. Rather, I admitted to them a weakness in my argument and if they "could" find such evidence in the bible, seeing as I have not, then I would have to rethink my argument. They are, after all, seeking to weaken my argument and consequently, it is there burden to find evidence that does so, not mine. It is not my job to destroy my own argument but the opposing sides since they object to it.

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What you need to support your claim is to find an example where a different word is used to describe hostility and hatred between human and an animal.
That would be the most absolutely stupidest thing I could do. That would utterly destroy my argument. I do not want to make such an argument at all and any such evidence would just obliterate the point I am making. It would completely undermine my use of habit/consistency evidence. Wake up and smell the coffee!

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there is absolutely no reason to read this word as meaning anything other than what it appears mean (ie divinely ordered hatred between humans and snakes).
Well your misguided remarks out of the way this is not necessarily true. The fact is based on habit/consistency evidence the word is not used to characterize a relationship between humans and animals. The word(s) is used to characterize a relationship between persons elsewhere in the bible. That is the overwhelming biblical precedent.

Additionally, this is one way in which texts are interpreted. From the legal profession to ancient literature one way of deconstructing what a text says is to look at how the word is "used" in other areas. This will tell us how the word is commonly used, at least what it meant to the author, and allow us to determine what the author is talking about. Similarly, the bible should not be treated any differently. The fact the word does not have a habit/consistency of being used in such a manner to characterize a relationship between animals and humans but rather between persons leads me to think the author of Genesis was not talking only about a "snake".

The bible also lacks some other precedents and they are relevant to the assumptions you and others make.

First, you assume animals can speak on their own volition. The fact there does not exist a biblical habit/consistency of animals talking on their own volition renders this assumption, well, let's say "questionable".

In addition to assuming animals can talk, you presume animals possess cognitive abilities necessary to render them capable of discerning biblical "right" from "wrong". The fact is there does not exist any biblical precedent demonstrating animals can discern Godly "right" from "wrong";

In the book of Revelations, God's adversary is identified as "the Serpent".

Biblical precedent exists that God's adversary, Satan, tempts humans to engage in rebellious acts against God.

This is enough evidence for one to conclude Satan, God's adversary, was using the serpent, speaking through the serpent, to advocate A and E engage in a rebellious act against God.

Why? To review. Based on the practice of how the word(s) is used elsewhere in the bible to characterize a relationship between persons as opposed to one between animals/humans; biblical practice exists where Satan tempts humans to rebel; the fact the bible does not have a practice of animals talking on their own volition (the other example is where God spoke through a donkey), the bible also does not have a practice of animals possessing the cognitive skills to determine what is right from wrong, Revelations identifies Satan as "the serpent" leads me to think perhaps more than just a "snake" was present tempting Eve.

Now is it iron clad evidence? No but then again this is one way to interpret the text and it is not as "flawed" as suggested.
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Old 11-14-2005, 07:31 PM   #230
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You could perhaps benefit from re-reading my post. I never used the word "must".
If you acknowledge there is no compelling reason to accept your conclusion, the debate is over before it begins.

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The fact is I said there does not exist a biblical precedent for the word to be used in any other way other than to characterize a relationship between persons.
The fact is you've offered no reason to think that this "biblical precedent" is relevant let alone capable of altering the meaning of the word the way you want. Please provide linguistic evidence to support your assertion. Counting the uses in the Bible is entirely insufficient.

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Given the persistent use of how the word is used in the bible leads to the existence of a "habit".
Yes, the word is used "habitually" to describe enmity or hatred between two individuals or groups. This is entirely consistent with the dictionary definition of the word. Your conclusion, on the other hand, appears to go well beyond the evidence.

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Additionally, I have not shifted the burden.
Of course you have. You set requirements for others to alter your conclusion. In addition, those requirements are based on your faulty assumption about the relevance of word counts in interpreting the passage so you are actually shifting the burden to a wild goose chase.

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I have not asked the opposing side to "prove" a claim they have not made.
That would be more an example of a straw man than shifting the burden. You essentially asked for your position to be disproven by the work of others.

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Rather, I admitted to them a weakness in my argument and if they "could" find such evidence in the bible, seeing as I have not, then I would have to rethink my argument.
Your argument certainly has a weakness but this isn't it. There is no reason to look for this "evidence" because there is no reason to think that we need to introduce your nuance to the word for hatred/enmity.

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Originally Posted by Amaleq13
What you need to support your claim is to find an example where a different word is used to describe hostility and hatred between human and an animal.
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That would be the most absolutely stupidest thing I could do. That would utterly destroy my argument.
No, it would be entirely consistent with your argument. You are claiming that the biblical author considered the relationship between snake and humans to be person-to-person not person-to-animal. Finding an example of a different word being used to describe hatred between humans and animals would lend support to your claim that the author has something else in mind. Get it? If he thought the snake was just an animal, he would have used this other word you found that was used for that purpose.

Bet you wish you hadn't copped such an attitude now, eh? Should have sniffed your own coffee, I guessl.

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The fact is based on habit/consistency evidence the word is not used to characterize a relationship between humans and animals.
Even if there was some reason to suspect such a nuanced meaning for the word (and there isn't), you certainly cannot consider the handful of examples in the Bible to constitute a meaningful sample.

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The word(s) is used to characterize a relationship between persons elsewhere in the bible. That is the overwhelming biblical precedent.
Where is this nuanced meaning included in a dictionary? Where is the scholarly acknowledgement of this "overwhelming biblical precedent"?

The answers to these questions would constitute the support you need for your contention but have yet to present.

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First, you assume animals can speak on their own volition.
No, I assume talking snakes are a clear indication I am reading a fable.

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In the book of Revelations, God's adversary is identified as "the Serpent".
This is entirely irrelevant to understanding how the author of a much earlier text intended his words to be understood.

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Based on the practice of how the word(s) is used elsewhere in the bible to characterize a relationship between persons as opposed to one between animals/humans
I'm glad you worded it this way because it makes your error more apparent. You have offered no evidence for "opposed to" because you are mistaken in thinking that your frequency count constitutes evidence for it.

The evidence suggests the word is used to characterize a relationship between persons in addition to one between animals/humans.
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