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Old 03-30-2012, 11:11 PM   #321
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It is most amusing that you seem not to realise Spin is an Agnostic who is fighting with LOM.
What's funny is that you think I'm anything other than agnostic. Not just about christianity, or religion. You, on the other hand, are a believer. You have "faith" in your approach; a faith rejected by agnostic, atheist, Jewish, christian and all other historians.
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Old 03-30-2012, 11:14 PM   #322
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...Methinks, to continue a 'fight' over the Greek words in this Gal. 1 passage will not do the ahistoricist/mythicist position any good at all. The ahistoricists/mythicists need to raise their game here and not get stuck in an argument over translating Greek words - an argument they cannot win. Focusing on the 'trees' here, focusing on the Greek words involved in the 'brother of the Lord' phrase - is to fail to see the 'wood'. It's a failure to take the context of Gal. 1, 18,19 into serious consideration. A contrast between 'brother' and 'apostle'.
It is most amusing that you seem not to realise Spin is an Agnostic who is fighting with LOM.

However, the matter has already been resolved over 1600 years ago.

1. Apologetic sources mentioned the parents of the Apostle James.

2. Apologetic sources mentioned the parents of Jesus.

The Lord Jesus is NOT the brother of James the Apostle--the father of Jesus was NOT Joseph or Alphaeus and his mother was the Sister of the Mother of James the Apostle according to Apologetic sources.

See De Viris Illustribus and the Fragments of Papias.
Come now, aa - spin is not the only one wanting to deny that Gal. 1:18,19 is dealing with a biological brother issue. How about Doherty - and Carrier??

aa - it's all a story. In stories, literary characters can have as many brothers as the writer finds use for.....

For heavens sake - let the gospel JC historicists have James as a 'brother of the Lord'. Big Deal...........................

The ahistoricist/mythicists position does not stand or fall upon Gal. 1:18,19 - and neither does the JC historicist position.
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Old 03-30-2012, 11:18 PM   #323
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That's because it is missing a word. What I meant to say was:
But unless we have any evidence of anyone ever just inventing a character and writing a series of letters under that character's name, then why consider it plausible? Except, of course, to fit it into some radical skepticism which one only applies to christian sources. Because if there was no one named Paul writing these letters, then we have no reason to think that virtually ancient any author existed.
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That is a logical fallacy - the composition fallacy.
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That's only true if we have some reason for asserting that any of the letters ascribed to Paul were not written by him...
Well, about half of the letters ascribed to Paul were not written by him ...

But the point about the fallacy is that you cannot ascribe a situation with Paul to any other, or all, ancient authors. What is discussed about the Pauline documents does not apply to writings written by others. They are independent of each other.

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Well, about half of the letters ascribed to Paul were not written by him which would also explain why we should accept authentic authorship elsewhere.
is a non-sequitur - the two halves of that sentence do not relate to each other, at all.

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Yet you want to go beyond that and claim that we are seeing something historically unprecendented. A series of epistles (not literary works), which spontaneously developed a character "paul" who then continued to be used.
Yes; if it is historically unprecedented, so be it.

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In a highly illiterate culture centuries before the printing press, such collective behavior would require some precedent. After all, while history, myth, narrative fiction, biography, technical texts, etc., were all genres with "fuzzy" boundaries and sharing many essential features, letters were a comparatively clearly demarcated "genre."
We are talking about letters that advocate the writer was primarily and significantly impacted by the supernatural - that invokes myth & narrative fiction which as likely involves the alleged author being a literary device to confer legitimacy.

We are dealing with extra-ordinary claims which as likely involve extra-ordinary tactics.
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Old 03-30-2012, 11:55 PM   #324
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Well, about half of the letters ascribed to Paul were not written by him ...
And you know this because of your personal knowledge of the genre and language in question? Or because someone told you so?

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But the point about the fallacy is that you cannot ascribe a situation with Paul to any other, or all, ancient authors.
I didn't. Having read "ancient authors" and the textual analysis/criticism behind the most accepted versions of various manuscripts, I happen to know what methods are employed to determine whether or not is it a particular author composed a given text.

You don't. Clearly.

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What is discussed about the Pauline documents does not apply to writings written by others. They are independent of each other.
Who cares what is "discussed about the Pauline documents"? The issue is quite plain. You assert something about a criterion or criteria concerning what constitutes genuine authorship. Have you applied it to other ancient authors? No, you haven't.

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is a non-sequitur - the two halves of that sentence do not relate to each other, at all.
Excellent. You refute a point I never made. Congratulations.

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Yes; if it is historically unprecedented, so be it.
So we have no evidence that this type of collective creation in ancient highly illiterate society ever happened, but we should accept your account because..."so be it" ? Well, that certainly sounds like faith.
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We are talking about letters that advocate the writer was primarily and significantly impacted by the supernatural - that invokes myth & narrative fiction which as likely involves the alleged author being a literary device to confer legitimacy.
Influenced by myth, supernatural, and impossibility? OH NO! Wait... that's basically all of ancient history.

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We are dealing with extra-ordinary claims which as likely involve extra-ordinary tactics.
I don't know what you are "dealing with." I'm dealing with an argument that amounts to a radical denial of any ancient authorship/author.
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Old 03-31-2012, 12:48 AM   #325
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I'm dealing with an argument that amounts to a radical denial of any ancient authorship/author.
Err, No. Just a proposition that the Paul that is both the alleged author and alleged central character of the epistles allegedly written by him is mostly, if not all, myth.

Half the epistles written by this alleged Paul are widely deemed to be unlikely to have been written by him, and others are have questioned, or are questioning, the other half - the so-called "undisputed Pauline epistles".

With nothing else written about this alleged Paul, he is a shadowy figure indeed.
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Old 03-31-2012, 01:26 AM   #326
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spin is not the only one wanting to deny that Gal. 1:18,19 is dealing with a biological brother issue.
So you don't think that the fanaticism involved in vociferously claiming that Gal 1:19 must mean that James is the biological brother of Jesus is reasonable, despite the fact 1) that the gospels show James with all the family as rejected by Jesus, 2) Acts gives no family status to James, 3) that Paul basically only uses the term "brother" for a believer in his religion, and 4) that equating the non-titular κυριος to Jesus is against the Jewish usage of the time, unprecedented and against his theology, which clearly subordinates Jesus to god. This is not exegesis: it's dogma. And apparently you are an accomplice. Denial has the sort of negative implications of someone in your position.
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Old 03-31-2012, 01:43 AM   #327
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spin is not the only one wanting to deny that Gal. 1:18,19 is dealing with a biological brother issue.
So you don't think that the fanaticism involved in vociferously claiming that Gal 1:19 must mean that James is the biological brother of Jesus is reasonable, despite the fact 1) that the gospels show James with all the family as rejected by Jesus, 2) Acts gives no family status to James, 3) that Paul basically only uses the term "brother" for a believer in his religion, and 4) that equating the non-titular κυριος to Jesus is against the Jewish usage of the time, unprecedented and against his theology, which clearly subordinates Jesus to god. This is not exegesis: it's dogma. And apparently you are an accomplice. Denial has the sort of negative implications of someone in your position.
:hysterical:

Story-time, spin - it's a story. If you want to read it as history - that's OK with me - I beg to differ.

And, spin, you can drop the negative vibes your throwing my way - they do nothing for your argument. You have enough trouble on your hands in this debate with LegionOnomaMoi than to bother with small-fry like me......

Seems to me there is more at stake in this debate than rationality....:constern01:
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Old 03-31-2012, 01:59 AM   #328
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So you don't think that the fanaticism involved in vociferously claiming that Gal 1:19 must mean that James is the biological brother of Jesus is reasonable, despite the fact 1) that the gospels show James with all the family as rejected by Jesus, 2) Acts gives no family status to James, 3) that Paul basically only uses the term "brother" for a believer in his religion, and 4) that equating the non-titular κυριος to Jesus is against the Jewish usage of the time, unprecedented and against his theology, which clearly subordinates Jesus to god. This is not exegesis: it's dogma. And apparently you are an accomplice. Denial has the sort of negative implications of someone in your position.
Story-time, spin - it's a story. If you want to read it as history - that's OK with me - I beg to differ.
Claiming it's a story changes nothing. You still get the same blind faith in the significance of the phrase.

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And, spin, you can drop the negative vibes your throwing my way - they do nothing for your argument. You have enough trouble on your hands in this debate with LegionOnomaMoi than to bother with small-fry like me......
You chose your words. Denial is negative and its usage in "spin is not the only one wanting to deny that Gal. 1:18,19 is dealing with a biological brother issue" shows your disposition. Your implication of denial is inappropriate and false.

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Seems to me there is more at stake in this debate than rationality....:constern01:
I'd say thoughtless communication, if you get my ambiguity.
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Old 03-31-2012, 02:24 AM   #329
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This is not exegesis: it's dogma.
exegesis: critical scrutiny of a text;

dogma: an established belief or doctrine held by an organization or individual;

In my view, dogma arises from acceptance of someone's exegesis.

I don't think we have sufficient information to accept an interpretation of Galatians 1:18-19, that identifies the presumed historical figure, James the Just, as biological sibling of the mythical Jesus of Capernaum. The linguistic and theological evidence/debate is inadequately persuasive.

1: conflict between gospel presentation, versus Pauline epistles is tough, in view of absence of hard data on publication dates/authors.
2. Acts is one of, if not the, most unreliable sources of the canon.
3. Brother is often used, not only by Paul, but by other early writers, to indicate fellow christian, rather than kinship (agree with you).
4. John refutes you, by equating Jesus to YHWH. Further, I am unpersuaded that earliest Christianity is derived from Judaism, rather than Gnosticism. I see Judaism as salt and pepper, not flesh. I cannot imagine any Jew, then or now, reading Mark 1:1, and thinking anything other than "heresy". YHWH had no offspring. That's some kind of pagan nonsense, nothing to do with the monotheistic Judaism of that era.

I thought maryhelena's comment was right on target, and not directed as criticism of anyone.
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Old 03-31-2012, 02:29 AM   #330
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Except, of course, to fit it into some radical skepticism which one only applies to christian sources.
That's probably why in the whole history of research into ancient texts, no one has ever discovered any forgeries and no one has ever asked questions like "Did Socrates exist?" or "Are the essays attributed to Aristotle in the Catalogue of Diogenes really by him?" or "Was Homer a woman?". Because skepticism about who wrote what is quite unjustified; we can take the authorial attribution as a given. Further, everyone knows that organizations and institutions always faithfully represent their origins, and their internal and external accounts are never self-serving. Nor do they coordinate presentations over time and space to put themselves in the best possible light, nor do their adherents share understandings about how issues are to be presented. That never happens.

If you question anything in the above paragraph, you must be a radical skeptic.

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